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NUR 254 MATERNAL AND PEDIATRIC NURSING EXAM 1
COMPLETE (140) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
NURSING
Prepare effectively for the NUR 254 Maternal and Pediatric Nursing Exam 1 with this
focused study resource. It supports review of maternal health, pregnancy, labor and
delivery, newborn care, pediatric growth and development, and essential nursing
interventions. Use the material to reinforce your understanding, review key topics, and
identify areas that may require additional study. This resource is suited for nursing
students, maternal-child health learners, and candidates preparing for the NUR 254
examination.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION I: NORMAL PREGNANCY & ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-30)
1. A pregnant patient's last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on May
4th. Using Naegele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A) February 1st
B) February 11th
C) January 28th
D) February 18th
Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months from the first day of the
LNMP and add 7 days (and add 1 year if crossing the year boundary). May 4
minus 3 months = February 4. February 4 plus 7 days = February 11.
2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 12 weeks gestation. Which
finding should the nurse consider normal?
A) Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
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B) Heart rate of 55 bpm
C) Hemoglobin of 11.2 g/dL
D) Fetal heart rate of 80 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: During pregnancy, plasma volume increases more than red
blood cell mass, causing physiologic anemia of pregnancy
(hemodilution). A hemoglobin of 11.2 g/dL is normal in the first trimester.
BP should not exceed 140/90, HR should be 60-100, and the fetal heart
rate at 12 weeks should be 110-160 bpm.
3. A client at 8 weeks gestation asks the nurse about taking a prenatal
vitamin. Which supplement is most critical during the first trimester to
prevent neural tube defects?
A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Folic acid
D) Vitamin C
Answer: C
Rationale: Folic acid (at least 400-800 mcg daily) is crucial during early
pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects like spina bifida and
anencephaly, which occur in the first 4 weeks of gestation.
4. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient at 12 weeks gestation. Which of
the following is a presumptive (possible) sign of pregnancy?
A) Chadwick's sign
B) Positive pregnancy test
C) Hegar's sign
D) Breast tenderness and fatigue
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Answer: D
Rationale: Presumptive signs are those felt by the patient (amenorrhea,
nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness). Probable signs are those observed by
the examiner (Chadwick's sign, Hegar's sign, positive pregnancy test).
Positive signs are absolute proof of pregnancy (fetal heartbeat on
ultrasound, fetal movement).
5. A pregnant client asks the nurse, "When will I start to feel the baby
move?" The nurse knows that quickening (fetal movement) is typically felt
by a primigravida at:
A) 12-14 weeks
B) 16-20 weeks
C) 24-26 weeks
D) 28-30 weeks
Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening is typically felt by a primigravida at 16-20 weeks. A
multigravida may feel it earlier, around 14-16 weeks, because they
recognize the sensation.
6. A pregnant client at 32 weeks reports experiencing occasional,
irregular, painless uterine contractions. The nurse explains that these are:
A) True labor contractions
B) Braxton Hicks contractions
C) Preterm labor
D) Placental abruption
Answer: B
Rationale: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless (or mild),
"practice" contractions that do not cause cervical change. They are
normal in the second and third trimesters.
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7. A client at 10 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting. Which
recommendation should the nurse make first?
A) Take prenatal vitamins with orange juice
B) Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
C) Increase dietary fat intake
D) Lie down after meals
Answer: B
Rationale: Dry crackers before rising help stabilize blood glucose and
reduce morning sickness. Lying down after meals can worsen reflux; fat
delays gastric emptying.
8. The nurse has provided dietary teaching for a pregnant client who has
iron deficiency anemia. Which meal option selected by the client
indicates that teaching has been effective?
A) Grilled steak, creamed spinach, and an apple
B) Fried chicken, mashed potatoes, and orange soda
C) Tofu scramble, whole-grain toast, and grapefruit juice
D) Pasta with tomato sauce and a mixed green salad
Answer: A
Rationale: Grilled steak is a rich source of heme iron, which is more
readily absorbed. Creamed spinach provides non-heme iron and vitamin
C, while the apple offers additional vitamin C, enhancing iron absorption.
9. A pregnant client at 36 weeks reports a sudden gush of fluid from the
vagina. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Check cervical dilation
NUR 254 MATERNAL AND PEDIATRIC NURSING EXAM 1
COMPLETE (140) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
NURSING
Prepare effectively for the NUR 254 Maternal and Pediatric Nursing Exam 1 with this
focused study resource. It supports review of maternal health, pregnancy, labor and
delivery, newborn care, pediatric growth and development, and essential nursing
interventions. Use the material to reinforce your understanding, review key topics, and
identify areas that may require additional study. This resource is suited for nursing
students, maternal-child health learners, and candidates preparing for the NUR 254
examination.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION I: NORMAL PREGNANCY & ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-30)
1. A pregnant patient's last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on May
4th. Using Naegele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A) February 1st
B) February 11th
C) January 28th
D) February 18th
Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months from the first day of the
LNMP and add 7 days (and add 1 year if crossing the year boundary). May 4
minus 3 months = February 4. February 4 plus 7 days = February 11.
2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 12 weeks gestation. Which
finding should the nurse consider normal?
A) Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
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B) Heart rate of 55 bpm
C) Hemoglobin of 11.2 g/dL
D) Fetal heart rate of 80 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: During pregnancy, plasma volume increases more than red
blood cell mass, causing physiologic anemia of pregnancy
(hemodilution). A hemoglobin of 11.2 g/dL is normal in the first trimester.
BP should not exceed 140/90, HR should be 60-100, and the fetal heart
rate at 12 weeks should be 110-160 bpm.
3. A client at 8 weeks gestation asks the nurse about taking a prenatal
vitamin. Which supplement is most critical during the first trimester to
prevent neural tube defects?
A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Folic acid
D) Vitamin C
Answer: C
Rationale: Folic acid (at least 400-800 mcg daily) is crucial during early
pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects like spina bifida and
anencephaly, which occur in the first 4 weeks of gestation.
4. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient at 12 weeks gestation. Which of
the following is a presumptive (possible) sign of pregnancy?
A) Chadwick's sign
B) Positive pregnancy test
C) Hegar's sign
D) Breast tenderness and fatigue
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Answer: D
Rationale: Presumptive signs are those felt by the patient (amenorrhea,
nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness). Probable signs are those observed by
the examiner (Chadwick's sign, Hegar's sign, positive pregnancy test).
Positive signs are absolute proof of pregnancy (fetal heartbeat on
ultrasound, fetal movement).
5. A pregnant client asks the nurse, "When will I start to feel the baby
move?" The nurse knows that quickening (fetal movement) is typically felt
by a primigravida at:
A) 12-14 weeks
B) 16-20 weeks
C) 24-26 weeks
D) 28-30 weeks
Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening is typically felt by a primigravida at 16-20 weeks. A
multigravida may feel it earlier, around 14-16 weeks, because they
recognize the sensation.
6. A pregnant client at 32 weeks reports experiencing occasional,
irregular, painless uterine contractions. The nurse explains that these are:
A) True labor contractions
B) Braxton Hicks contractions
C) Preterm labor
D) Placental abruption
Answer: B
Rationale: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless (or mild),
"practice" contractions that do not cause cervical change. They are
normal in the second and third trimesters.
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7. A client at 10 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting. Which
recommendation should the nurse make first?
A) Take prenatal vitamins with orange juice
B) Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
C) Increase dietary fat intake
D) Lie down after meals
Answer: B
Rationale: Dry crackers before rising help stabilize blood glucose and
reduce morning sickness. Lying down after meals can worsen reflux; fat
delays gastric emptying.
8. The nurse has provided dietary teaching for a pregnant client who has
iron deficiency anemia. Which meal option selected by the client
indicates that teaching has been effective?
A) Grilled steak, creamed spinach, and an apple
B) Fried chicken, mashed potatoes, and orange soda
C) Tofu scramble, whole-grain toast, and grapefruit juice
D) Pasta with tomato sauce and a mixed green salad
Answer: A
Rationale: Grilled steak is a rich source of heme iron, which is more
readily absorbed. Creamed spinach provides non-heme iron and vitamin
C, while the apple offers additional vitamin C, enhancing iron absorption.
9. A pregnant client at 36 weeks reports a sudden gush of fluid from the
vagina. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Check cervical dilation
