COMPLETE SOLUTION | UPDATED
RATED A+ | NEW | 2026/2027
140 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
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IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NCLEX MODULE 1 EXAM | WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION | UPDATED RATED A+ | NEW | 2026/2027. It
contains 140 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each
question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying
pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 140 Questions
Foundations - Application - Nclex Module 1 WITH Complete Solution Updated Rated A NEW 2026/2027
Nursing Nclex-rn Preparation Undergraduate YEAR 4 / Pre-licensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-24 Nursing, Intervention, Blood, Transfusion, Chronic
Safety AND Infection Control 25-48 Prescribed, Infusion, Blood, Receiving, Paco2
Health Promotion AND 49-72 Infusion, Finding, Receiving, Prescribed, Transfusion
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 73-96 Prescribed, Finding, Medication, Blood, Receiving
Basic CARE AND Comfort 97-120 Requires, Immediate, Intervention, Medication, Caring
Pharmacological Therapies 121-140 Receiving, Prescribed, Finding, Indicates, Medication
TOTAL 140 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed aluminum hydroxide as a
phosphate binder. Which concurrent medication interaction is most clinically significant?
A. Calcium carbonate B. Ferrous sulfate
C. Ciprofloxacin D. Acetaminophen
Correct: C - Ciprofloxacin
Rationale:Aluminum hydroxide binds to fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) in the GI tract,
drastically reducing antibiotic absorption. Calcium carbonate is also a phosphate binder but is
often used as an alternative, not a problematic interaction. Ferrous sulfate can be given but
may reduce absorption of some drugs; however, the most significant interaction is with
ciprofloxacin. Acetaminophen has no known interaction.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Calcium carbonate is a phosphate binder alternative, not a significant interaction with
aluminum hydroxide.
B. Ferrous sulfate may interact but is not the most clinically significant compared to
fluoroquinolones.
D. Acetaminophen has no significant interaction with aluminum hydroxide.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 59
Q2.
A nurse is caring for a client with a pulmonary artery catheter. The waveform shows a
prominent 'v' wave. Which condition is most likely?
A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis D. Tricuspid stenosis
Correct: B - Mitral regurgitation
Rationale:A prominent 'v' wave in the pulmonary artery wedge pressure tracing indicates
mitral regurgitation, as blood regurgitates into the left atrium during ventricular systole,
increasing atrial pressure. Pulmonary hypertension would show elevated pulmonary artery
pressures but not a prominent v wave. Aortic stenosis affects left ventricular pressures.
Tricuspid stenosis would cause a prominent a wave in right atrial pressure.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Pulmonary hypertension causes elevated pulmonary artery pressures but not a prominent v
wave in the wedge tracing.
C. Aortic stenosis affects left ventricular systolic pressure, not the wedge v wave.
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
D. Tricuspid stenosis causes a prominent a wave, not a v wave.
Reference: Urden, L.D. et al. (2026). Critical Care Nursing, 9th Ed., Ch. 14
Q3.
Which ethical principle is most directly challenged when a nurse withholds a diagnosis
from a client at the family's request?
A. Beneficence B. Autonomy
C. Justice D. Fidelity
Correct: B - Autonomy
Rationale:Withholding a diagnosis violates the client's right to self-determination, which is
autonomy. The client cannot make informed decisions without full information. Beneficence
(doing good) may be argued, but it does not outweigh the ethical duty to respect autonomy.
Justice involves fair distribution of care, not information. Fidelity is keeping promises, but the
primary conflict is with autonomy.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Beneficence may be cited but does not justify overriding the client's right to know.
C. Justice pertains to fairness in resource allocation, not information disclosure.
D. Fidelity involves keeping commitments, but the core issue is the client's right to
self-determination.
Reference: Burkhardt, M.A., & Nathaniel, A.K. (2025). Ethics & Issues in Contemporary Nursing, 4th Ed.,
Ch. 5
Q4.
A client with a traumatic brain injury has an intraventricular catheter. Which nursing
intervention is most important to prevent infection?
A. Change the drainage bag every 24 hours B. Use sterile technique during all
manipulations
C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics D. Clamp the catheter when turning the
client
Correct: B - Use sterile technique during all manipulations
Rationale:Strict sterile technique during any manipulation of the intraventricular catheter is
the cornerstone of infection prevention. Changing the drainage bag is not recommended
unless contamination occurs. Prophylactic antibiotics are not routinely indicated and may
promote resistance. Clamping during turning is for preventing rapid CSF drainage, not
infection.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Routine bag changes are not recommended and may increase infection risk.
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