ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR BLUEPRINT | NCLEX TEST PLAN ALIGNED
ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam
Questions and Verified Answers - Latest 2026 | 2027 Update
180 9 75% 25/50/25 100%
ANSWERED WITH
VERIFIED QUESTIONS CONTENT SECTIONS SCENARIO-BASED COGNITIVE LEVEL MIX
RATIONALES
This comprehensive preparation examination reflects the ATI RN Fundamentals proctored assessment blueprint and
the current NCLEX-RN test plan for the 2026-2027 testing cycle. Each of the 180 questions is written in authentic
ATI style, with four options, one verified correct answer, and a detailed rationale that applies nursing-process
reasoning, priority frameworks, and evidence-based practice. Cognitive levels are distributed at approximately 25
percent recall, 50 percent application, and 25 percent analysis, and distractors reproduce the most common ATI
examination pitfalls, including prioritization errors, delegation mistakes, medication-calculation errors,
infection-control confusion, and legal and ethical misapplication. Work through the sections in order, commit to an
answer before reading the rationale, and use every incorrect response as a targeted content-review assignment.
SECTION 1
Safe, Effective Care Environment - Management of Care
Questions 1-35 | Client Rights, Advocacy, Delegation, Legal and Ethical Issues, HIPAA, Informed Consent, and Advance Directives
Q1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus tells the nurse, 'I am not taking that insulin anymore because it makes
me feel weak at night.' Which ethical principle is the nurse demonstrating by respecting the client's decision to
refuse treatment?
A. Beneficence
B. Autonomy [CORRECT]
C. Justice
D. Fidelity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Autonomy is the client's right to make decisions about their own care, including the right to refuse treatment,
even when the nurse believes the decision may harm the client. Beneficence refers to promoting good for the client, but it
does not override a competent client's informed refusal. Justice concerns fair and equal treatment of all clients, and fidelity
concerns keeping professional commitments and promises. The nurse should also assess why the client feels weak, report
the refusal, and teach about hypoglycemia, but the guiding principle for honoring refusal is autonomy.
ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam | 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Questions and Answers Page 1
, Q2. A preoperative client has just received a full explanation of an upcoming appendectomy from the surgeon.
Which nursing action best fulfills the nurse's legal responsibility related to informed consent?
A. Verify the client's understanding of the procedure and witness the client's signature on the consent form
[CORRECT]
B. Explain the surgical technique step by step so the client can make an informed decision
C. Obtain the signature on the consent form before administering the preoperative sedation
D. Contact the family so they can sign the consent form on the client's behalf
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives, while the nurse is
responsible for verifying understanding, answering questions, and witnessing the signature. Explaining the surgical
technique is outside the nurse's role, so option B is incorrect. A client who has received preoperative sedation may not
provide legally valid consent, making option C incorrect. A competent adult client must sign personally; family members
sign only when the client lacks decision-making capacity, so option D is incorrect.
Q3. A nurse answers the unit telephone. The caller states, 'This is Maria, my coworker was in a car accident, and I
just want to know if she is okay.' Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. 'She is in stable condition, but you will need to speak with her family for details.'
B. 'I will transfer you to her room so you can ask her directly.'
C. 'Come to the hospital and I will give you an update at the information desk.'
D. 'I am not able to confirm whether any particular person is being cared for at this facility.' [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Under HIPAA, the nurse may neither confirm nor deny that a client is receiving care without the client's
authorization. Options A and B both disclose protected health information to an unverified caller who is not on the client's
approved contact list. Directing the caller to the information desk with a promise of an update (option C) still confirms the
client's presence and is a confidentiality breach. The nurse may offer to take the caller's contact information and pass it to
the client so the client can choose to make contact.
Q4. A client is completing an advance directive during admission. Which statement indicates a correct
understanding of a durable power of attorney for health care?
A. 'It describes the medical treatments I do and do not want at the end of life.'
B. 'It only goes into effect if my physician determines I am terminally ill.'
C. 'It names a person to make my health care decisions if I become unable to do so.' [CORRECT]
D. 'It cannot be changed once it is signed and witnessed.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A durable power of attorney for health care (health care proxy) appoints an agent to make health care decisions
when the client is incapacitated. Option A describes a living will, which states treatment preferences such as refusal of
resuscitation or artificial nutrition. Option B incorrectly limits the document to terminal illness; the proxy applies to any
incapacity. Advance directives can be revised or revoked at any time while the client is competent, making option D
incorrect.
ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam | 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Questions and Answers Page 2
, Q5. The nurse is assigning tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a medical-surgical unit. Which task is
appropriate to delegate to the UAP?
A. Teaching a newly diagnosed client how to perform fingerstick blood glucose monitoring
B. Ambulating a stable postoperative client twice during the shift [CORRECT]
C. Suctioning the tracheostomy of a client who recently returned from surgery
D. Interpreting an abnormal heart rhythm on a client's telemetry monitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ambulation of a stable client is a noninvasive, routine activity with a predictable outcome, which fits the UAP
scope. Teaching is an RN-level responsibility because it requires assessment of learning needs, making option A incorrect.
Suctioning a fresh tracheostomy requires specialized assessment and sterile technique and is not delegable, so option C is
incorrect. Rhythm interpretation is assessment and judgment, which remains with the RN, making option D incorrect.
Q6. Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) on a medical-surgical
unit?
A. Performing the initial admission assessment on a client transferred from the emergency department
B. Administering scheduled oral antibiotics to a stable client recovering from pneumonia [CORRECT]
C. Developing the nursing care plan for a newly admitted client with heart failure
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a new pain management regimen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs may administer medications, including oral medications, to clients whose condition is stable and
predictable. The initial admission assessment, care plan development, and evaluation of care outcomes are RN-level
responsibilities that require analysis and judgment, so options A, C, and D are outside LPN scope. The RN may delegate
reinforcement of teaching or data collection to the LPN but retains assessment, planning, and evaluation.
Q7. A nurse floated from the postpartum unit is assigned to a medical-surgical unit. Which client is appropriate for
the float nurse to receive?
A. A client with heart failure requiring continuous IV vasoactive medication titration
B. A client who is 1 day postoperative from a craniotomy requiring frequent neurologic checks
C. A client receiving a first transfusion of packed red blood cells for a gastrointestinal bleed
D. A client with cellulitis who needs scheduled oral antibiotics and dressing changes [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Float nurses should receive clients with stable conditions and predictable outcomes, and care that is within the
nurse's general competencies. Oral antibiotics and routine dressing changes are within any RN's scope, making option D
appropriate. Continuous titration of vasoactive drips, frequent neurologic assessments after craniotomy, and the
monitoring phase of an initial blood transfusion all require specialized assessment skills and close surveillance, so options
A, B, and C are inappropriate assignments for a float nurse.
ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam | 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Questions and Answers Page 3
, Q8. A nurse enters a client's room to start an IV and the client says sharply, 'If you put that needle in my arm, I will
call a lawyer.' The nurse continues anyway and inserts the IV. The nurse's action is best defined as which
intentional tort?
A. Assault
B. Defamation
C. Battery [CORRECT]
D. False imprisonment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Battery is actual physical contact with a client's body or anything attached to it without the client's consent,
even if no injury occurs. Assault is the threat or attempt to make bodily contact that places the client in fear, so option A is
incorrect because contact actually occurred. Defamation involves damaging a person's reputation through false statements,
and false imprisonment involves unjustified detention of a person against their will, so options B and D do not apply. The
nurse should have stopped, explored the client's concerns, and notified the provider.
Q9. An alert and oriented client with a terminal illness tells the nurse, 'I am done with treatment and I want to go
home now.' The charge nurse responds, 'You cannot leave until the doctor says you can.' Which tort does this
statement create a risk for?
A. Assault
B. False imprisonment [CORRECT]
C. Negligence
D. Malpractice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Detaining a competent client against their wishes constitutes false imprisonment, which includes physical
restraint, threats, or misuse of authority to prevent a client from leaving. A competent client has the right to leave against
medical advice (AMA) after being informed of the risks. Assault requires a threat of bodily harm, not a restriction of
movement, so option A is incorrect. Negligence and malpractice involve failure to meet the standard of care causing harm,
which is not the issue in this statement, so options C and D are incorrect. The nurse should notify the provider, ensure the
client understands the risks, and provide AMA forms.
Q10. A client falls while getting out of bed unassisted. After assessing and stabilizing the client, which
documentation action by the nurse is correct?
A. Document the client's assessment findings and the event objectively in the medical record and complete
an incident report separately [CORRECT]
B. Document in the medical record that an incident report was completed for the client's fall
C. Wait until the end of the shift to document the fall so all details can be gathered
D. Record only that the client was 'found on the floor' to avoid implying liability
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The medical record must contain an objective account of the event, assessment findings, interventions, and
client response; the incident report is completed separately and is never referenced in the chart because it is a
risk-management document discoverable only through specific legal processes. Option B violates this separation and
suggests awareness of fault. Option C describes late entry, which is poor practice; documentation should occur as soon as
possible with actual times noted. Evasive wording such as 'found on the floor' without details creates an incomplete record
ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam | 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Questions and Answers Page 4
ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam
Questions and Verified Answers - Latest 2026 | 2027 Update
180 9 75% 25/50/25 100%
ANSWERED WITH
VERIFIED QUESTIONS CONTENT SECTIONS SCENARIO-BASED COGNITIVE LEVEL MIX
RATIONALES
This comprehensive preparation examination reflects the ATI RN Fundamentals proctored assessment blueprint and
the current NCLEX-RN test plan for the 2026-2027 testing cycle. Each of the 180 questions is written in authentic
ATI style, with four options, one verified correct answer, and a detailed rationale that applies nursing-process
reasoning, priority frameworks, and evidence-based practice. Cognitive levels are distributed at approximately 25
percent recall, 50 percent application, and 25 percent analysis, and distractors reproduce the most common ATI
examination pitfalls, including prioritization errors, delegation mistakes, medication-calculation errors,
infection-control confusion, and legal and ethical misapplication. Work through the sections in order, commit to an
answer before reading the rationale, and use every incorrect response as a targeted content-review assignment.
SECTION 1
Safe, Effective Care Environment - Management of Care
Questions 1-35 | Client Rights, Advocacy, Delegation, Legal and Ethical Issues, HIPAA, Informed Consent, and Advance Directives
Q1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus tells the nurse, 'I am not taking that insulin anymore because it makes
me feel weak at night.' Which ethical principle is the nurse demonstrating by respecting the client's decision to
refuse treatment?
A. Beneficence
B. Autonomy [CORRECT]
C. Justice
D. Fidelity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Autonomy is the client's right to make decisions about their own care, including the right to refuse treatment,
even when the nurse believes the decision may harm the client. Beneficence refers to promoting good for the client, but it
does not override a competent client's informed refusal. Justice concerns fair and equal treatment of all clients, and fidelity
concerns keeping professional commitments and promises. The nurse should also assess why the client feels weak, report
the refusal, and teach about hypoglycemia, but the guiding principle for honoring refusal is autonomy.
ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam | 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Questions and Answers Page 1
, Q2. A preoperative client has just received a full explanation of an upcoming appendectomy from the surgeon.
Which nursing action best fulfills the nurse's legal responsibility related to informed consent?
A. Verify the client's understanding of the procedure and witness the client's signature on the consent form
[CORRECT]
B. Explain the surgical technique step by step so the client can make an informed decision
C. Obtain the signature on the consent form before administering the preoperative sedation
D. Contact the family so they can sign the consent form on the client's behalf
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives, while the nurse is
responsible for verifying understanding, answering questions, and witnessing the signature. Explaining the surgical
technique is outside the nurse's role, so option B is incorrect. A client who has received preoperative sedation may not
provide legally valid consent, making option C incorrect. A competent adult client must sign personally; family members
sign only when the client lacks decision-making capacity, so option D is incorrect.
Q3. A nurse answers the unit telephone. The caller states, 'This is Maria, my coworker was in a car accident, and I
just want to know if she is okay.' Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. 'She is in stable condition, but you will need to speak with her family for details.'
B. 'I will transfer you to her room so you can ask her directly.'
C. 'Come to the hospital and I will give you an update at the information desk.'
D. 'I am not able to confirm whether any particular person is being cared for at this facility.' [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Under HIPAA, the nurse may neither confirm nor deny that a client is receiving care without the client's
authorization. Options A and B both disclose protected health information to an unverified caller who is not on the client's
approved contact list. Directing the caller to the information desk with a promise of an update (option C) still confirms the
client's presence and is a confidentiality breach. The nurse may offer to take the caller's contact information and pass it to
the client so the client can choose to make contact.
Q4. A client is completing an advance directive during admission. Which statement indicates a correct
understanding of a durable power of attorney for health care?
A. 'It describes the medical treatments I do and do not want at the end of life.'
B. 'It only goes into effect if my physician determines I am terminally ill.'
C. 'It names a person to make my health care decisions if I become unable to do so.' [CORRECT]
D. 'It cannot be changed once it is signed and witnessed.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A durable power of attorney for health care (health care proxy) appoints an agent to make health care decisions
when the client is incapacitated. Option A describes a living will, which states treatment preferences such as refusal of
resuscitation or artificial nutrition. Option B incorrectly limits the document to terminal illness; the proxy applies to any
incapacity. Advance directives can be revised or revoked at any time while the client is competent, making option D
incorrect.
ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam | 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Questions and Answers Page 2
, Q5. The nurse is assigning tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a medical-surgical unit. Which task is
appropriate to delegate to the UAP?
A. Teaching a newly diagnosed client how to perform fingerstick blood glucose monitoring
B. Ambulating a stable postoperative client twice during the shift [CORRECT]
C. Suctioning the tracheostomy of a client who recently returned from surgery
D. Interpreting an abnormal heart rhythm on a client's telemetry monitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ambulation of a stable client is a noninvasive, routine activity with a predictable outcome, which fits the UAP
scope. Teaching is an RN-level responsibility because it requires assessment of learning needs, making option A incorrect.
Suctioning a fresh tracheostomy requires specialized assessment and sterile technique and is not delegable, so option C is
incorrect. Rhythm interpretation is assessment and judgment, which remains with the RN, making option D incorrect.
Q6. Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) on a medical-surgical
unit?
A. Performing the initial admission assessment on a client transferred from the emergency department
B. Administering scheduled oral antibiotics to a stable client recovering from pneumonia [CORRECT]
C. Developing the nursing care plan for a newly admitted client with heart failure
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a new pain management regimen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs may administer medications, including oral medications, to clients whose condition is stable and
predictable. The initial admission assessment, care plan development, and evaluation of care outcomes are RN-level
responsibilities that require analysis and judgment, so options A, C, and D are outside LPN scope. The RN may delegate
reinforcement of teaching or data collection to the LPN but retains assessment, planning, and evaluation.
Q7. A nurse floated from the postpartum unit is assigned to a medical-surgical unit. Which client is appropriate for
the float nurse to receive?
A. A client with heart failure requiring continuous IV vasoactive medication titration
B. A client who is 1 day postoperative from a craniotomy requiring frequent neurologic checks
C. A client receiving a first transfusion of packed red blood cells for a gastrointestinal bleed
D. A client with cellulitis who needs scheduled oral antibiotics and dressing changes [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Float nurses should receive clients with stable conditions and predictable outcomes, and care that is within the
nurse's general competencies. Oral antibiotics and routine dressing changes are within any RN's scope, making option D
appropriate. Continuous titration of vasoactive drips, frequent neurologic assessments after craniotomy, and the
monitoring phase of an initial blood transfusion all require specialized assessment skills and close surveillance, so options
A, B, and C are inappropriate assignments for a float nurse.
ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam | 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Questions and Answers Page 3
, Q8. A nurse enters a client's room to start an IV and the client says sharply, 'If you put that needle in my arm, I will
call a lawyer.' The nurse continues anyway and inserts the IV. The nurse's action is best defined as which
intentional tort?
A. Assault
B. Defamation
C. Battery [CORRECT]
D. False imprisonment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Battery is actual physical contact with a client's body or anything attached to it without the client's consent,
even if no injury occurs. Assault is the threat or attempt to make bodily contact that places the client in fear, so option A is
incorrect because contact actually occurred. Defamation involves damaging a person's reputation through false statements,
and false imprisonment involves unjustified detention of a person against their will, so options B and D do not apply. The
nurse should have stopped, explored the client's concerns, and notified the provider.
Q9. An alert and oriented client with a terminal illness tells the nurse, 'I am done with treatment and I want to go
home now.' The charge nurse responds, 'You cannot leave until the doctor says you can.' Which tort does this
statement create a risk for?
A. Assault
B. False imprisonment [CORRECT]
C. Negligence
D. Malpractice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Detaining a competent client against their wishes constitutes false imprisonment, which includes physical
restraint, threats, or misuse of authority to prevent a client from leaving. A competent client has the right to leave against
medical advice (AMA) after being informed of the risks. Assault requires a threat of bodily harm, not a restriction of
movement, so option A is incorrect. Negligence and malpractice involve failure to meet the standard of care causing harm,
which is not the issue in this statement, so options C and D are incorrect. The nurse should notify the provider, ensure the
client understands the risks, and provide AMA forms.
Q10. A client falls while getting out of bed unassisted. After assessing and stabilizing the client, which
documentation action by the nurse is correct?
A. Document the client's assessment findings and the event objectively in the medical record and complete
an incident report separately [CORRECT]
B. Document in the medical record that an incident report was completed for the client's fall
C. Wait until the end of the shift to document the fall so all details can be gathered
D. Record only that the client was 'found on the floor' to avoid implying liability
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The medical record must contain an objective account of the event, assessment findings, interventions, and
client response; the incident report is completed separately and is never referenced in the chart because it is a
risk-management document discoverable only through specific legal processes. Option B violates this separation and
suggests awareness of fault. Option C describes late entry, which is poor practice; documentation should occur as soon as
possible with actual times noted. Evasive wording such as 'found on the floor' without details creates an incomplete record
ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam | 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Questions and Answers Page 4
