Galen NSG 3250 (NSG3250) Adult Health I – Exam 4 | Complete Questions & Answers Review Guide | Latest 2026–2027.

NSG 3250 Adult Health I Exam 4 – Complete Q&A Study Guide | Galen College of Nursing | Updated 2026–2027 Below are **all 150 questions and multiple-choice options only** from the uploaded **NSG 3250: Adult Health I — Exam 4, Fall 2026** PDF. Correct answers and rationales have been removed. 1. Which intervention is appropriate for epididymitis? A. Scrotal support and intermittent cold compresses B. High-impact exercise C. Frequent sexual stimulation D. Tight abdominal binding 2. Which sensory change is common in older adults? A. Improved night vision B. Improved high-frequency hearing C. Reduced ability to hear high-frequency sounds D. Increased tactile sensitivity 3. Which statement describes finasteride therapy for BPH? A. It is a rapid-acting rescue drug for acute urinary retention B. It is used to treat trichomoniasis C. It decreases prostate size and may take weeks to months to show benefit D. It is given to increase prostate size 4. Which complication is especially associated with gonorrhea in women? A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Hydrocele C. Urethral stricture caused by catheter trauma D. Benign prostatic hyperplasia 5. Why is ovarian cancer considered especially dangerous in the course material? A. It is difficult to detect early and has a high gynecologic cancer mortality B. It is diagnosed by PSA testing C. It always produces obvious early symptoms D. It is prevented completely by Kegel exercises 6. What change is expected in many uterine fibroids after menopause? A. They always become malignant B. They may shrink C. They become sexually transmitted D. They double in size because estrogen increases 7. Which factor increases the risk for pelvic organ prolapse? A. Regular pelvic floor exercise B. Maintaining healthy weight C. Vaginal childbirth D. Avoiding straining 8. Which discharge is most characteristic of vaginal candidiasis? A. Clear mucus without symptoms B. Thin gray discharge with fishy odor C. Frothy yellow-green discharge only D. Thick white cottage-cheese-like discharge 9. Which symptom triad is repeatedly emphasized for endometriosis? A. Tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing loss B. Dysuria, nocturia, and hematuria C. Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and dyschezia D. Pruritus, rash, and genital warts 10. Which dietary principle is appropriate for many older adults? A. Eliminate all fiber B. Avoid monitoring weight C. More calories with less protein D. Fewer calories but nutrient-dense foods with adequate protein, vitamins, minerals, and fiber 11. Which teaching is important for a patient being treated for PID? A. Sexual partners may also require treatment B. Use hormonal contraception as protection from STIs C. Stop antibiotics when pelvic pain improves D. Avoid all follow-up gynecologic care 12. Which factor increases the risk for endometrial cancer? A. Low lifetime estrogen exposure B. Unopposed estrogen exposure C. Young age alone with no other risk factors D. Regular Kegel exercises 13. Which finding is most consistent with epididymitis? A. Painless hard irregular breast mass B. Painless genital chancre C. Unilateral testicular pain and swelling D. Loss of peripheral vision 14. Which principle should guide medication dosing in older adults? A. Double all doses to overcome slower absorption B. Start low and go slow C. Start high and taper immediately D. Ignore renal and liver function 15. Which factor is identified as a psychogenic cause of erectile dysfunction? A. Neurologic disease B. Performance anxiety C. Kidney disease D. Cirrhosis 16. Which intervention supports musculoskeletal health in older adults? A. Weight-bearing exercise with adequate calcium and vitamin D B. Long-term bed rest C. Eliminating dietary calcium D. Avoiding all physical activity 17. Which medication is used to suppress and shorten genital herpes outbreaks? A. Ceftriaxone only B. Leuprolide C. Valacyclovir D. Tamsulosin 18. Which finding is characteristic of primary syphilis? A. A frothy malodorous discharge B. A painful vesicular rash with recurrent outbreaks C. A cauliflower-like genital wart D. A painless genital chancre 19. Which medication strategy is used for pain and disease control in endometriosis? A. NSAIDs or prostaglandin inhibitors and hormonal therapy B. Only sildenafil C. Only tamsulosin D. Only antibiotics for life 20. Which statement about an elevated PSA is supported by the review materials? A. It confirms metastatic prostate cancer in every case B. It is expected to remain zero in BPH C. It is diagnostic only for epididymitis D. It does not by itself prove prostate cancer 21. Which statement about cervical cancer is emphasized in the Unit 9 material? A. It always presents early with severe pain B. It is diagnosed by PSA testing C. It occurs only in men D. It may produce few symptoms until disease is advanced 22. Ageism is best described as: A. A progressive form of dementia B. Stereotyping, prejudice, or discrimination based on age C. A type of urinary incontinence D. A normal decline in kidney filtration 23. Why is sperm banking discussed before orchiectomy for testicular cancer? A. Treatment can result in low sperm count or infertility B. It prevents genital herpes recurrence C. It prevents urinary retention after surgery D. It reduces PSA levels 24. Which condition is listed as an autosomal recessive disorder? A. Klinefelter syndrome B. Marfan syndrome C. Phenylketonuria D. Huntington disease 25. Hemophilia is described in the review as which inheritance pattern? A. Autosomal recessive only B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. Mitochondrial 26. Which chromosome pattern is associated with Klinefelter syndrome in the review? A. Absence of all X chromosomes B. A normal XX female pattern C. Only one Y chromosome with no X chromosome D. An extra X chromosome in a male 27. Which finding is most consistent with uterine prolapse? A. Painless genital chancre B. Isolated high-frequency hearing loss C. Painless penile discharge D. Pelvic pressure with urinary incontinence or retention that worsens with lifting or coughing 28. Which respiratory change is associated with aging? A. Increased lung mass and decreased residual volume B. Reduced inspiratory and expiratory force with increased residual volume C. Complete loss of susceptibility to respiratory infection D. Markedly improved respiratory efficiency 29. Which statement best describes genital herpes? A. It is a temporary fungal infection only in older adults B. It is a benign prostate disorder C. It is a recurrent lifelong viral infection with no cure D. It is a bacterial infection cured permanently by one antibiotic dose 30. A functional geriatric assessment should include: A. Only skin turgor B. Only blood pressure C. Only sexual history D. ADLs, IADLs, and cognition 31. Which therapy may be used for invasive cervical cancer? A. Only Kegel exercises B. Only tamsulosin C. Only topical antifungal therapy D. Radiation, chemotherapy, or hysterectomy 32. Which teaching helps reduce symptoms of orthostatic hypotension in an older adult? A. Rise slowly when changing position B. Stand up as quickly as possible C. Increase caffeine before every position change D. Restrict all fluids permanently 33. Which statement about HPV is emphasized in the uploaded Unit 8 material? A. HPV is always symptomatic B. HPV is the most common STI in the United States C. HPV is caused by a protozoan D. HPV cannot be transmitted by skin-to-skin contact 34. Which finding can occur with advanced cervical cancer? A. Painless testicular enlargement B. Weak urine stream from prostate hyperplasia only C. High-frequency hearing loss D. Irregular bleeding and foul or dark vaginal discharge 35. A patient is prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. When does the course material indicate it should generally be taken? A. Only with a nitrate medication B. Once monthly at bedtime C. Only after sexual activity D. About 1 hour before sexual activity 36. Which problem is a priority when an older adult has dysphagia? A. Fibrocystic breast changes B. Hair loss C. Aspiration risk D. Ageism 37. Which nursing teaching helps prevent self-transmission of genital herpes? A. Wear tight occlusive clothing B. Avoid touching lesions and perform careful hand hygiene C. Scrub lesions vigorously with perfumed soap D. Apply any over-the-counter ointment 38. Which statement about an affected father with an X-linked recessive disorder is listed in the review? A. None of his daughters can carry the gene B. All of his daughters will be carriers C. Only his sons can inherit the X chromosome from him D. All of his sons will be affected 39. Which statement best reflects healthy aging according to the review? A. Health promotion, exercise, and a nutrient-rich diet support functional independence B. Physical activity should be stopped to prevent falls C. Functional decline is unavoidable and cannot be influenced D. Preventive care is not useful after age 65 40. Which statement about fibrocystic breast changes is correct according to the review? A. They occur only after mastectomy B. They always indicate breast cancer C. They are fixed, hard, irregular malignant masses D. They are benign and often diminish after menopause 41. Which instruction is especially important for a patient with epididymitis? A. Increase sexual stimulation to reduce prostate pressure B. Perform Kegel exercises while voiding every time C. Avoid sexual stimulation until the infection is managed D. Avoid all hydration 42. Which medication combination should be avoided with sildenafil according to the uploaded notes? A. A stool softener with sildenafil B. A topical antifungal with sildenafil C. Nitroglycerin with sildenafil D. Acetaminophen with sildenafil 43. Which strategy helps reduce medication-related problems in older adults? A. Keep the regimen as complex as possible B. Add supplements without review C. Use multiple pharmacies so records stay separate D. Use one primary prescriber and one pharmacy when possible 44. Which statement about urinary incontinence in older adults is correct? A. It requires fluid restriction in every patient B. It is not considered a normal finding of aging C. It occurs only in men D. It is inevitable and should not be assessed 45. Why should sexual partners be treated when a patient has trichomoniasis? A. To treat cataracts B. To reduce reinfection C. To prevent breast cancer D. To prevent benign prostatic hyperplasia 46. Which reproductive problem is commonly associated with endometriosis? A. Infertility B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia C. Hydrocele D. Epididymitis 47. Which assessment cluster most strongly supports pelvic inflammatory disease? A. Painless breast lump without systemic symptoms B. Weak urine stream and nocturia in an older man C. Pelvic pain, vaginal discharge, dyspareunia, dysuria, and fever D. Tinnitus with high-frequency hearing loss 48. A man reports erectile dysfunction. Which finding in the course materials may represent an organic cause? A. Only performance anxiety B. Cardiovascular disease C. Only relationship stress D. Only negative body image 49. Treponema pallidum is described in the course materials as a: A. Retrovirus B. Protozoan C. Spirochete D. Fungus 50. A ruptured ovarian cyst may mimic which conditions? A. Appendicitis or ectopic pregnancy B. Syphilis or herpes C. BPH or prostatitis D. Presbycusis or glaucoma 51. Which STI is listed as reportable to the local or state public health department? A. Syphilis B. Genital herpes C. Trichomoniasis D. Human papillomavirus 52. Which action should be avoided on the side affected by mastectomy with lymph node involvement? A. Gentle arm exercises B. Monitoring for swelling C. Blood pressure measurements and blood draws D. Elevation of the arm 53. A nurse suspects elder abuse. What action is supported by the course review? A. Confront the suspected abuser alone before documenting B. Report the concern through facility management or the immediate supervisor with the reasons for suspicion C. Ignore the concern unless the patient requests police involvement D. Wait for physical injury to become severe 54. Which statement best distinguishes delirium from dementia? A. Dementia is a normal aging change B. Delirium is always a slow irreversible decline C. Delirium is acute and often related to a treatable underlying cause D. Dementia resolves immediately after hydration 55. Which cluster is identified in the review as a geriatric syndrome triad? A. Herpes, HPV, and syphilis B. Falls, urge incontinence, and cognitive problems C. Dysuria, chancre, and tinnitus D. Cystocele, rectocele, and hydrocele 56. Which manifestation is associated with PCOS? A. Irregular menses, hirsutism, insulin resistance, and infertility B. Painless testicular mass C. Painless genital chancre only D. High-frequency hearing loss only 57. Which statement about chronologic age is supported by the course material? A. All people of the same age have identical health status B. Chronologic age alone determines functional ability C. Chronologic age is a poorer predictor of health than genetics and lifestyle D. Lifestyle has no effect on aging 58. A male patient with untreated gonorrhea is at risk for which reproductive complication? A. Epididymitis B. Uterine prolapse C. Endometrial hyperplasia D. Cystocele 59. Which symptom pattern is typical of vulvovaginitis? A. Painless urinary retention with no genital symptoms B. Isolated loss of high-frequency hearing C. Painless chancre only D. Itching, burning, irritation, and increased discharge 60. Which breast finding is concerning for malignancy? A. Bilateral tenderness that improves after menopause B. A hard, fixed lesion with irregular borders and skin dimpling C. A soft mobile nodule with no skin changes D. A freely movable lump that fluctuates with menstruation 61. Which symptom in a postmenopausal woman requires evaluation for endometrial cancer? A. Reduced skin elasticity B. Slower reflexes C. Vaginal bleeding D. Mild age-related hearing loss 62. Which medication is listed as an alternative for a patient with syphilis who cannot take penicillin? A. Doxycycline B. Finasteride C. Paclitaxel D. Sildenafil 63. Which prevention strategy is emphasized for cervical cancer? A. Regular Pap screening, HPV vaccination, and safer sex practices B. Routine TURP C. Monthly PSA testing in women D. Avoiding all calcium intake 64. Which finding is commonly associated with gonorrhea in women according to the uploaded notes? A. Painless genital chancre B. Severe urinary retention from prostate enlargement C. Inflamed cervix with purulent discharge D. Painless hard breast mass 65. Which reproductive change is expected in older women? A. Decreased vaginal elasticity and secretions B. Increased estrogen and progesterone C. Increased vaginal tone and lubrication D. Increased reproductive viability after menopause 66. What is the most emphasized manifestation of uterine fibroids? A. Dysuria from prostatitis B. Tinnitus C. Menorrhagia D. Painless penile discharge 67. Which nervous-system change is expected with normal aging? A. Slower nerve conduction and response time B. Rapidly progressive confusion as a normal change C. Increased reflex speed D. Increased brain mass 68. Microscopic identification of which structure supports candidiasis? A. Germ cells B. Spirochetes only C. Hyphae D. Atheromatous plaque 69. Which finding should raise concern for testicular cancer? A. A painless genital chancre B. Frothy malodorous vaginal discharge C. Painless enlargement or lump of the testis D. Painful urination with purulent penile discharge only 70. Why are urinary tract infections more common in older adults according to the notes? A. Bladder tone always increases B. Incomplete bladder emptying and inadequate fluid intake can contribute C. The kidneys become more efficient with age D. Urine becomes sterile with aging 71. Which prevention teaching about the HPV vaccine is supported by the course materials? A. Vaccination cures active genital warts immediately B. Vaccination is used only after cervical cancer develops C. Vaccination is ideally given before sexual activity D. Vaccination eliminates the need for future Pap smears 72. Which condition is listed as an autosomal dominant disorder? A. Albinism B. Huntington disease C. Phenylketonuria D. Cystic fibrosis 73. How should a testicular self-examination be performed according to the Unit 8 notes? A. Only while lying prone B. Once every five years in a cold room C. Monthly after a warm shower, using both hands with a rolling motion D. Only after strenuous exercise 74. What is a primary purpose of Kegel exercises in women with pelvic support disorders? A. Increase urinary retention B. Strengthen pelvic floor muscles and reduce stress incontinence or prolapse C. Increase abdominal straining D. Relax the pelvic floor permanently 75. A woman reports a severe latex allergy during STI counseling. Which nursing action is most appropriate before recommending a barrier method? A. Advise avoidance of all STI prevention methods B. Assess the planned barrier method for latex content and risk of allergic reaction C. Recommend any latex condom because barrier protection is the priority D. Delay the STI assessment until the allergy resolves 76. Where do most older adults live according to the Unit 10 material? A. In the community, independently or with family B. In acute-care hospitals C. In nursing homes D. In intensive care units 77. Why are Pap smears emphasized for women with HPV? A. HPV-related dysplasia can increase the risk for cervical cancer B. Pap smears are used to diagnose epididymitis C. Pap smears measure prostate size D. Pap smears prevent all skin-to-skin transmission 78. Which presentation is most consistent with vulvar cancer? A. Painless chancre that resolves spontaneously B. High-frequency hearing loss C. Painless urinary retention only D. Persistent pruritus or soreness with a nonhealing vulvar lesion 79. How does tamsulosin help a patient with BPH? A. It relaxes smooth muscle at the bladder neck and prostate to improve urine flow B. It destroys HPV warts C. It treats syphilitic aortitis D. It reduces ovarian androgen production 80. Which procedure confirms endometriosis according to the Unit 9 notes? A. Audiogram B. PSA testing C. Laparoscopic examination D. Testicular self-examination 81. Which symptom pattern can occur with ovarian cancer? A. High-frequency hearing loss and tinnitus B. Weak urine stream and dribbling in a male patient C. Painless chancre and rash on palms D. Increasing abdominal girth, bloating, pelvic pressure, and urinary urgency 82. A patient is receiving continuous bladder irrigation after TURP. Which output pattern is expected? A. The output should consist only of large blood clots B. There should be no urinary output for the first 24 hours C. Urinary output should always be less than irrigation intake D. Urinary output should be greater than the irrigation intake 83. A patient is treated for gonorrhea. Which additional teaching is most important for reducing reinfection? A. Sexual partners should also be evaluated and treated B. Use only topical therapy on the genital area C. Stop treatment when symptoms improve D. Avoid all dairy products for one month 84. Which patient is at greatest risk for atrophic vaginitis? A. A young adult with epididymitis B. A postmenopausal woman C. A man with BPH D. A teenage male with cryptorchidism 85. A patient receives leuprolide for uterine fibroids. Which adverse effect is expected? A. Immediate cure of all pelvic infections B. Improved bone density and increased estrogen C. Menopause-like symptoms and decreased bone density D. Increased urine flow through the prostate 86. What is the key teaching for a patient taking metronidazole for trichomoniasis? A. Stop the drug after the first symptom-free day B. Increase alcohol intake to prevent nausea C. Avoid alcohol during treatment D. Use the medication only on external warts 87. What is the best first step during medication reconciliation when a drug regimen appears ineffective? A. Ask the patient exactly how the medications are being taken B. Stop every medication C. Immediately add another medication D. Assume the patient is noncompliant 88. Which factor increases the risk for vaginal candidiasis? A. Recent antibiotic therapy B. High estrogen-independent prostate growth C. Cryptorchidism D. A low PSA 89. Which statement best describes uterine leiomyomas? A. They are always metastatic ovarian tumors B. They are commonly benign growths arising from uterine muscle C. They are infections of the fallopian tubes D. They are viral genital lesions 90. Why do condoms not completely prevent HPV transmission according to the notes? A. Condoms increase viral replication B. HPV spreads only through airborne droplets C. HPV is transmitted only through blood transfusion D. HPV can spread by skin-to-skin contact from uncovered areas 91. The preventive education target group emphasized for gonorrhea and chlamydia is: A. Only married adults B. Only adults older than 65 years C. Only postmenopausal women D. Adolescents and young adults 92. Which statement about reproductive aging in men is supported by the course material? A. Men may have slower arousal and lower testosterone but can remain reproductively viable B. Sexual activity is contraindicated in all older adults C. Testosterone always increases with age D. All men become infertile at age 65 93. Which clinical description is associated with Marfan syndrome in the review? A. Painless testicular mass B. Tall, slender body with long arms and legs and cardiovascular involvement C. Musty odor from phenylalanine accumulation only D. Short stature with neck webbing 94. Which communication approach is recommended for an older adult with hearing loss? A. Use only written communication regardless of preference B. Turn away while speaking C. Speak from another room D. Face the patient while speaking and assess understanding 95. Which description best fits polycystic ovary syndrome? A. Chronic anovulation and hyperandrogenism with multiple small ovarian cysts B. A bacterial infection of the cervix C. A viral infection causing genital vesicles D. A benign enlargement of the prostate 96. Which substance is identified in the review as a teratogen associated with congenital limb defects? A. Tamsulosin B. Donepezil C. Finasteride D. Thalidomide 97. Which assessment finding is most consistent with a cystocele? A. Rectal pressure with uncontrolled gas only B. Painless breast nodularity that varies with menses C. Painful genital vesicles D. Pelvic pressure with urinary frequency, urgency, or incontinence 98. Which test provides definitive tissue confirmation of breast cancer in the course material? A. Kegel testing B. Biopsy C. Urinalysis D. PSA 99. Which intervention supports a patient with dementia? A. Increase noise and stimulation B. Frequently change staff and environment C. Provide a calm predictable routine with memory cues and safety measures D. Encourage independent driving despite safety concerns 100. Which breast cancer is described in the review as rare, aggressive, rapidly metastasizing, and associated with an orange-peel skin appearance? A. Fibrocystic breast change B. Lobular hyperplasia only C. Inflammatory carcinoma D. Benign fibroadenoma 101. Which medication is used for candidiasis in the Unit 9 material? A. Sildenafil B. Miconazole C. Tamsulosin D. Penicillin G 102. Which finding is associated with Huntington disease in the review? A. Congenital absence of pigmentation B. Painless genital warts C. Short stature with wide chest D. Mental deterioration with involuntary musculoskeletal movements appearing later in life 103. What is the first-line medication identified in the course materials for syphilis? A. Tamsulosin B. Famciclovir C. Penicillin G D. Metronidazole 104. Which vaginal discharge is most consistent with trichomoniasis? A. Thin, frothy, yellow to yellow-green, and malodorous B. Thick, white, curd-like discharge only C. Clear mucus with no irritation or odor D. Scant blood-tinged discharge from atrophy 105. Which complication should be monitored after vulvectomy? A. Trichomoniasis B. Wound breakdown and infection C. Presbycusis D. Benign prostatic hyperplasia 106. Which manifestation is associated with clinical HPV infection? A. Frothy discharge caused by a protozoan only B. Condyloma or genital warts C. Painless prostate enlargement D. Painless chancre caused by Treponema pallidum 107. Which treatment is associated with atrophic vaginitis? A. Paclitaxel B. Metronidazole for every patient C. Finasteride D. Topical estrogen 108. Which description is most consistent with dementia? A. A gradual progressive cognitive and functional decline that affects daily life B. A temporary episode lasting only minutes C. A normal age-related slowing that never affects ADLs D. An acute reversible confusion caused by dehydration 109. Which description correctly defines a heterozygous genotype according to the review? A. Two different alleles for a trait B. Absence of alleles C. Two identical dominant alleles only D. Two identical recessive alleles only 110. After TURP, the urine changes from blood-tinged to dark burgundy. What should the nurse recognize? A. A normal sign of dehydration only B. Possible venous bleeding that should be reported C. Evidence that the catheter should be removed immediately D. An expected sign that no further assessment is needed 111. Which change is associated with menopause? A. Increased bone loss B. Increased vaginal elasticity C. Increased estrogen and progesterone D. Improved bone density without lifestyle change 112. Why do the course notes emphasize treating gonorrhea and chlamydia together? A. Neither infection responds to antimicrobial therapy B. Both are caused by the same virus C. Coinfection is common D. Both always cause visible genital ulcers 113. Which pattern is expected with genital herpes outbreaks? A. The first outbreak is always painless B. Every recurrence is more severe than the first C. The initial outbreak is typically the most severe and painful D. Outbreaks occur only once in a lifetime 114. Which positioning instruction is included in the TURP postoperative notes? A. Use low or mid-Fowler positioning rather than high-Fowler B. Keep the patient Trendelenburg continuously C. Maintain high-Fowler at all times D. Keep the patient prone for 24 hours 115. During an STI history, which set of topics reflects the “Five P’s” emphasized in the course materials? A. Partners, prevention of pregnancy, protection from STIs, practices, and past history of STIs B. Pain, pregnancy, Pap smear, prophylaxis, and pelvic pressure C. Partners, prostate history, pregnancy, pain, and prescriptions D. Prevention, pathology, prognosis, procedures, and prescriptions 116. Which finding is most consistent with a rectocele? A. Painless testicular enlargement B. Purulent cervical discharge C. Urinary urgency without bowel symptoms D. Rectal pressure, constipation, and uncontrolled gas 117. After a diagnosis of syphilis, which public health action is expected? A. Routine surgical removal of lesions B. Identification, notification, and screening of sexual contacts C. Permanent avoidance of all vaccinations D. Immediate isolation in a negative-pressure room 118. Trichomoniasis is caused by which type of organism? A. A human papillomavirus B. A spirochete C. A fungal yeast D. A flagellated protozoan 119. Which symptom cluster is typical of prostatitis? A. Painless breast lump and nipple retraction B. Painless testicular enlargement only C. Frothy vaginal discharge and vulvitis D. Dysuria, frequency, urgency, nocturia, and perineal pain 120. Which statement should the nurse include when teaching a patient with genital herpes? A. Transmission can occur even when active lesions are not visible B. Barrier methods are unnecessary after the first outbreak C. Once lesions heal, partners no longer need to know the diagnosis D. Transmission occurs only when fever is present 121. During an active genital herpes outbreak, the patient should be taught to: A. Increase sexual activity to shorten the outbreak B. Abstain from sexual activity until active disease is treated C. Use strong perfumed soaps on lesions D. Apply occlusive ointment continuously 122. Which intervention is emphasized for PCOS management? A. Avoiding all physical activity B. Lifestyle changes and weight loss C. Routine TURP D. Long-term high-dose alcohol intake 123. A patient with a history of PID reports delayed menses, unilateral pelvic pain, dizziness, and faintness. Which complication is most concerning? A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia B. Presbycusis C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Fibrocystic breast change 124. Which condition is listed as the leading cause of death in older adults? A. Endometriosis B. Heart disease C. Trichomoniasis D. Hydrocele 125. Which skin-care teaching is appropriate for an older adult? A. Take very hot baths daily B. Increase peak sun exposure C. Use hydration and lotion and avoid very hot bathing D. Avoid moisturizers 126. Which intervention is appropriate for constipation in an older adult? A. Restrict dietary fiber B. Avoid fluids C. Use stimulant laxatives routinely without assessment D. Encourage fluids, fiber, regular bowel patterns, and stool softeners 127. Which priority is emphasized for an older adult with depression? A. Increase environmental hazards B. Treat all symptoms as normal aging C. Avoid asking about self-harm D. Assess for suicide risk and maintain safety 128. Which urinary finding is most consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia? A. Weak, hesitant, interrupted urinary stream with incomplete emptying B. Painless genital ulcer C. Frothy yellow-green discharge D. Sudden painless vaginal bleeding 129. Which finding is associated with Turner syndrome in the review? A. Tall stature with long fingers and cardiovascular lesions B. Short stature, neck webbing, and failure to develop secondary sex characteristics C. Progressive prostate enlargement D. Painless testicular enlargement 130. Which statement best describes endometriosis? A. It is a normal age-related finding B. It is a fungal infection of the vagina C. It is a malignant prostate disorder D. Benign endometrial tissue is located outside the uterus and can cause chronic pelvic pain 131. Which discharge teaching is appropriate after TURP? A. Avoid vigorous activity and bladder irritants such as caffeine and alcohol during recovery B. Begin heavy lifting immediately C. Stop all fluids to prevent dribbling D. Use high doses of caffeine to stimulate urination 132. Which medication is used for trichomoniasis in the course materials? A. Finasteride B. Metronidazole C. Penicillin G only D. Donepezil 133. Polypharmacy increases the older adult’s risk for: A. Reduced fall risk B. Drug-drug interactions and adverse effects C. Faster kidney excretion D. Improved medication adherence in every case 134. Which organisms are commonly linked with PID in the course materials? A. Candida and influenza B. Treponema pallidum and human papillomavirus only C. Gonorrhea and chlamydia D. HPV and herpes only 135. Which finding is most consistent with gonorrhea in a male patient? A. Painless testicular enlargement without dysuria B. Burning with urination, penile discharge, and painful swollen testicles C. Painless genital chancre with no urinary symptoms D. Frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge 136. Which musculoskeletal change is associated with aging? A. Loss of bone density and muscle strength B. Increased bone density and muscle size C. More flexible joints D. Thicker intervertebral discs 137. Which assessment finding most strongly suggests secondary syphilis? A. Thin gray discharge with fishy odor only B. Progressive urinary hesitancy and nocturia C. A single painless testicular mass D. A generalized rash involving the trunk and extremities, including hands and feet 138. A patient taking tamsulosin should be taught to watch for which adverse effect? A. Cervical dysplasia B. Severe hyperglycemia as the primary effect C. Permanent hearing loss D. Orthostatic hypotension 139. How does decreased GFR affect medication safety in older adults? A. It causes all drugs to become ineffective B. Drug excretion is slower, increasing risk for toxicity C. Drug excretion is faster, eliminating toxicity risk D. It has no effect on medications 140. Which factor places a man at highest risk for testicular cancer in the uploaded notes? A. Late menopause B. Cryptorchidism C. History of uterine prolapse D. Atrophic vaginitis 141. A patient with ovarian cancer receives paclitaxel. Which adverse effect is emphasized? A. Increased bone density B. Permanent cure of all infections C. Benign prostate enlargement D. Leukopenia 142. Which factor increases breast cancer risk in the uploaded review? A. Routine Kegel exercises B. Shorter lifetime estrogen exposure C. Early menarche and late menopause D. Low body fat only 143. Which test is used in the evaluation of endometrial cancer? A. Transvaginal ultrasound with biopsy or aspiration B. Testicular self-examination C. PSA with DRE D. Audiogram only 144. Which skin change is expected with aging? A. Increased elasticity and collagen B. Improved temperature regulation C. Thicker skin with increased subcutaneous fat D. Dryness, thinning, and reduced thermoregulation 145. Which medication combination is listed for broad-spectrum PID treatment? A. Donepezil, rivastigmine, and memantine B. Paclitaxel, carboplatin, and aspirin C. Sildenafil, tamsulosin, and finasteride D. Ceftriaxone, doxycycline, and metronidazole 146. Which modifiable factor is identified as the most significant respiratory risk factor in older adults? A. Gray hair B. Menopause C. Smoking D. Normal aging itself 147. Phenylketonuria involves inability to metabolize which amino acid? A. Glycine B. Tryptophan C. Leucine D. Phenylalanine 148. Which complication is associated with tertiary syphilis? A. Candidiasis and atrophic vaginitis B. Cystocele and rectocele C. Neurosyphilis and aortitis D. Hydrocele and epididymitis 149. Which is a major complication of PID? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Presbycusis C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia D. Hydrocele 150. Which instruction correctly describes a Kegel exercise regimen in the course material? A. Contract abdominal muscles continuously for 5 minutes once weekly B. Avoid relaxing between contractions C. Perform only while sitting on the toilet D. Contract pelvic floor muscles for about 10 seconds, relax, and repeat 30 to 80 times daily