MBOFFIN
WGU
D027
OA Test Guide
VERIFIED QUESTION AND ANSWERS
WHAT’S INSIDE.
WGU D027 Oa Exam.
Actual Exam Test Bank.
100+Bonuses Questions And Correct Detailed Answers .
Rationales .
Ideal For Exam Preparation And Concept Reinforcement.
100% Comprehensive Overview Guide.
,WGU D027 OA EXAM
1. What is the gold standard for the suspected diagnosis of Celiac Disease?
A. Serologic testing for antibodies
B. Genetic testing for HLA-DQ2/DQ8
C. Endoscopy with small intestine biopsy
D. Response to gluten-free diet
Answer: C. Endoscopy with small intestine biopsy
Rationale: Endoscopy with small intestine biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosing celiac
disease. It allows direct visualization and tissue sampling of the duodenum to confirm villous
atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and increased intraepithelial lymphocytes.
2. A 44-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with advanced metastatic non-small-cell
lung cancer. Genetic testing is ordered to determine if the patient's tumor has any genomic
alterations and to guide treatment decisions. A few weeks later, the patient's test results come
back positive for a genetic mutation. The APN starts osimertinib (Tagrisso). Based on this
information, what type of genetic mutation does this patient have?
A. ALK rearrangement
B. ROS1 fusion
C. EGFR mutation
D. KRAS mutation
Answer: C. EGFR mutation
Rationale: Osimertinib (Tagrisso) is a third-generation EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor specifically
used to treat non-small cell lung cancer with EGFR mutations, including T790M resistance
mutations. It is indicated as first-line treatment for metastatic NSCLC with EGFR exon 19 deletions
or exon 21 L858R mutations.
,3. A 20-year-old male meets with an advanced professional nurse (APN) to discuss symptoms that
have been slowly progressing over the past several years. He is mainly concerned because he has
been falling frequently. Since childhood, his gait has consisted of walking on his toes. During
middle school, he was able to participate in sports but was unable to participate in high school
sports due to difficulty with running and jumping. Lately, he has noticed it takes longer and is
more difficult to change positions from sitting to standing than it used to in the past. He has also
been waking up with muscle and joint stiffness. The APRN notes that his family history is not
significant for any chronic or genetic diseases. Which condition is likely to be the cause of these
symptoms?
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Becker muscular dystrophy
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Multiple sclerosis
Answer: B. Becker muscular dystrophy
Rationale: Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is a form of muscular dystrophy that causes less
severe problems than Duchenne muscular dystrophy. It typically presents with later onset (usually
in adolescence or early adulthood), slower progression, and patients often maintain ambulation
into adulthood. The toe-walking gait, difficulty with running/jumping, progressive weakness, and
muscle stiffness are classic findings. The absence of family history can occur due to X-linked
recessive inheritance.
4. Which statement should the provider give the patient regarding the pathophysiology of SLE and
its relation to thrombocytopenia?
A. SLE causes direct destruction of platelets by autoantibodies
B. SLE disrupts immune homeostasis and promotes development of self-reactive antibodies
C. SLE decreases platelet production in the bone marrow
D. SLE causes platelet sequestration in the spleen
Answer: B. SLE disrupts immune homeostasis and promotes development of self-reactive
antibodies
Rationale: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is characterized by disruption of immune
homeostasis leading to the development of self-reactive antibodies. These autoantibodies can
target platelets, leading to immune-mediated thrombocytopenia. The underlying pathophysiology
involves loss of tolerance and production of autoantibodies against various cellular components
, 5. A female patient presents to an office to establish care. Her previous primary care provider told
her to follow up regarding an elevated ferritin level. She has no previous medical history and is
currently asymptomatic. She is concerned about the elevated ferritin and would like to know if she
should be worried. What should the provider do next for this patient?
A. Order iron studies
B. Order a liver function test
C. Refer to hematology
D. Repeat ferritin level
Answer: B. Order a liver function test
Rationale: Elevated ferritin can be associated with liver disease, inflammation, or iron overload.
Since ferritin is an acute-phase reactant and can be elevated in liver dysfunction, ordering liver
function tests is appropriate as a next step to evaluate for potential hepatic causes. This helps
differentiate between iron overload states and other causes of elevated ferritin.
6. A 75-year-old female presents to the emergency department with an irregular heart rate of 130.
What can be ascertained about this patient's findings given the limited information?
A. She is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and needs her heart rate controlled with metoprolol
(Lopressor)
B. She has sinus tachycardia and needs further evaluation
C. She has ventricular tachycardia requiring immediate cardioversion
D. She has atrial flutter and needs anticoagulation
Answer: A. She is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and needs her heart rate controlled with
metoprolol (Lopressor)
Rationale: The presentation of an irregular heart rate in an elderly patient is most consistent
with atrial fibrillation. Rate control with a beta-blocker such as metoprolol is appropriate initial
management. The irregular rhythm with rapid ventricular response requires rate control to
prevent hemodynamic compromise.
7. Which condition from this patient's medical history is contributing to the loss of contractility?
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Chronic hypertension
WGU
D027
OA Test Guide
VERIFIED QUESTION AND ANSWERS
WHAT’S INSIDE.
WGU D027 Oa Exam.
Actual Exam Test Bank.
100+Bonuses Questions And Correct Detailed Answers .
Rationales .
Ideal For Exam Preparation And Concept Reinforcement.
100% Comprehensive Overview Guide.
,WGU D027 OA EXAM
1. What is the gold standard for the suspected diagnosis of Celiac Disease?
A. Serologic testing for antibodies
B. Genetic testing for HLA-DQ2/DQ8
C. Endoscopy with small intestine biopsy
D. Response to gluten-free diet
Answer: C. Endoscopy with small intestine biopsy
Rationale: Endoscopy with small intestine biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosing celiac
disease. It allows direct visualization and tissue sampling of the duodenum to confirm villous
atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and increased intraepithelial lymphocytes.
2. A 44-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with advanced metastatic non-small-cell
lung cancer. Genetic testing is ordered to determine if the patient's tumor has any genomic
alterations and to guide treatment decisions. A few weeks later, the patient's test results come
back positive for a genetic mutation. The APN starts osimertinib (Tagrisso). Based on this
information, what type of genetic mutation does this patient have?
A. ALK rearrangement
B. ROS1 fusion
C. EGFR mutation
D. KRAS mutation
Answer: C. EGFR mutation
Rationale: Osimertinib (Tagrisso) is a third-generation EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor specifically
used to treat non-small cell lung cancer with EGFR mutations, including T790M resistance
mutations. It is indicated as first-line treatment for metastatic NSCLC with EGFR exon 19 deletions
or exon 21 L858R mutations.
,3. A 20-year-old male meets with an advanced professional nurse (APN) to discuss symptoms that
have been slowly progressing over the past several years. He is mainly concerned because he has
been falling frequently. Since childhood, his gait has consisted of walking on his toes. During
middle school, he was able to participate in sports but was unable to participate in high school
sports due to difficulty with running and jumping. Lately, he has noticed it takes longer and is
more difficult to change positions from sitting to standing than it used to in the past. He has also
been waking up with muscle and joint stiffness. The APRN notes that his family history is not
significant for any chronic or genetic diseases. Which condition is likely to be the cause of these
symptoms?
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Becker muscular dystrophy
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Multiple sclerosis
Answer: B. Becker muscular dystrophy
Rationale: Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is a form of muscular dystrophy that causes less
severe problems than Duchenne muscular dystrophy. It typically presents with later onset (usually
in adolescence or early adulthood), slower progression, and patients often maintain ambulation
into adulthood. The toe-walking gait, difficulty with running/jumping, progressive weakness, and
muscle stiffness are classic findings. The absence of family history can occur due to X-linked
recessive inheritance.
4. Which statement should the provider give the patient regarding the pathophysiology of SLE and
its relation to thrombocytopenia?
A. SLE causes direct destruction of platelets by autoantibodies
B. SLE disrupts immune homeostasis and promotes development of self-reactive antibodies
C. SLE decreases platelet production in the bone marrow
D. SLE causes platelet sequestration in the spleen
Answer: B. SLE disrupts immune homeostasis and promotes development of self-reactive
antibodies
Rationale: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is characterized by disruption of immune
homeostasis leading to the development of self-reactive antibodies. These autoantibodies can
target platelets, leading to immune-mediated thrombocytopenia. The underlying pathophysiology
involves loss of tolerance and production of autoantibodies against various cellular components
, 5. A female patient presents to an office to establish care. Her previous primary care provider told
her to follow up regarding an elevated ferritin level. She has no previous medical history and is
currently asymptomatic. She is concerned about the elevated ferritin and would like to know if she
should be worried. What should the provider do next for this patient?
A. Order iron studies
B. Order a liver function test
C. Refer to hematology
D. Repeat ferritin level
Answer: B. Order a liver function test
Rationale: Elevated ferritin can be associated with liver disease, inflammation, or iron overload.
Since ferritin is an acute-phase reactant and can be elevated in liver dysfunction, ordering liver
function tests is appropriate as a next step to evaluate for potential hepatic causes. This helps
differentiate between iron overload states and other causes of elevated ferritin.
6. A 75-year-old female presents to the emergency department with an irregular heart rate of 130.
What can be ascertained about this patient's findings given the limited information?
A. She is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and needs her heart rate controlled with metoprolol
(Lopressor)
B. She has sinus tachycardia and needs further evaluation
C. She has ventricular tachycardia requiring immediate cardioversion
D. She has atrial flutter and needs anticoagulation
Answer: A. She is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and needs her heart rate controlled with
metoprolol (Lopressor)
Rationale: The presentation of an irregular heart rate in an elderly patient is most consistent
with atrial fibrillation. Rate control with a beta-blocker such as metoprolol is appropriate initial
management. The irregular rhythm with rapid ventricular response requires rate control to
prevent hemodynamic compromise.
7. Which condition from this patient's medical history is contributing to the loss of contractility?
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Chronic hypertension
