NSG 3250 (NSG3250) Adult Health I Exam 3 – Complete Q&A 100% | Galen College of Nursing | Updated 2026–2027.

Galen NSG 3250 (NSG3250) Adult Health I – Exam 3. Below are the **questions and multiple-choice options only** from the uploaded **NSG 3250: Adult Health I — Exam 3, Fall 2026** PDF, with **correct answers and rationales removed**: 1. Which medication is listed as first-line therapy for psoriatic arthritis in the uploaded review? A. Timolol B. Lorazepam C. NSAIDs D. Meclizine 2. A patient has homonymous hemianopsia after a stroke. Which teaching is most appropriate? A. Avoid turning the head B. Place all items only on the affected side without cueing C. Keep the room cluttered so landmarks are easier to find D. Scan the environment from side to side and use the unaffected visual field for safety 3. Which patient statement about cerumen removal shows correct understanding of the uploaded teaching? A. "I should not use hairpins or other objects to remove earwax." B. "I should always irrigate any object in the ear." C. "Wax must be removed even when it causes no symptoms." D. "I should use sharp objects if the wax is hard." 4. Which statement best describes a transient ischemic attack (TIA) according to the uploaded materials? A. A progressive movement disorder caused by dopamine changes B. Temporary neurologic dysfunction from a brief interruption in cerebral blood flow C. Permanent neurologic loss caused by retinal separation D. A chronic infection of the mastoid air cells 5. Which patient statement before an MRI requires the nurse's immediate follow-up based on the uploaded study guide? A. "I know kidney function may be reviewed if contrast is used." B. "I understand the images can be very detailed." C. "I may need to remove personal items before the scan." D. "I have metal that may enter the imaging field." 6. A patient describes flashing lights and zigzag lines immediately before the onset of a migraine. The nurse should identify this as which phase or feature? A. Flaccid paralysis B. Aura C. Postictal phase D. Clonic phase 7. Sensorineural hearing loss is associated with damage to which structures in the uploaded review? A. The tympanic membrane only B. The lumbar spine C. The stapes only D. The cochlea or vestibulocochlear nerve 8. Which technique is correct when instilling prescribed eye drops? A. Apply ointment before all eye drops B. Touch the dropper tip directly to the cornea C. Place drops in the lower conjunctival sac and apply gentle pressure to the inner canthus D. Rub the eye vigorously after administration 9. After a mastoidectomy, which assessment finding may indicate facial nerve involvement? A. Great-toe pain B. Pill-rolling tremor C. Improved central vision D. Facial drooping or abnormal eye gaze 10. Which medication pair is identified for acute treatment of status epilepticus? A. Colchicine or allopurinol B. Levodopa-carbidopa or benztropine C. IV lorazepam or IV diazepam D. Meclizine or promethazine 11. Which finding is most characteristic of an acute gout attack in the uploaded materials? A. Unilateral facial paralysis B. Painless loss of peripheral vision C. Progressive unilateral hearing loss only D. Excruciating pain and inflammation, often in the great toe 12. Which treatment plan is consistent with osteomyelitis in the uploaded review? A. Only a one-time dose of meclizine B. Only an eye patch C. A prolonged course of antibiotics, with possible surgical debridement D. Only a low-sodium diet 13. Which physical finding is consistent with scoliosis? A. The stapes becomes fixed in the inner ear B. One shoulder and one hip may be higher because of lateral spinal curvature C. Only central vision is lost D. Both shoulders remain level with no lateral curve 14. What is the purpose of a compression dressing on a residual limb according to the key concepts? A. Increase intracranial pressure B. Shape the residual limb for a prosthesis and support circulation/venous return C. Increase flexion contracture D. Create conductive hearing loss 15. Which medication pairing correctly matches gout treatment in the uploaded review? A. Meclizine for acute gout and timolol for chronic gout B. Allopurinol for immediate status epilepticus and colchicine for cataracts C. Prednisone for otosclerosis and gabapentin for chronic gout D. Colchicine for an acute flare and allopurinol for chronic management 16. A patient taking phenytoin has a serum level of 16 mcg/mL. How should the nurse interpret this based on the uploaded notes? A. Within the listed therapeutic range B. Below the listed therapeutic range C. Toxic because any level above 10 mcg/mL is unsafe D. Toxic because it is above 12 mcg/mL 17. Which description best matches status migrainous in the uploaded Exam 3 material? A. A seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes B. A migraine headache lasting longer than 72 hours C. A TIA resolving within 24 hours D. A cluster headache lasting 30 minutes 18. A patient using an Amsler grid notices that straight lines suddenly look wavy and distorted. What should the patient do? A. Report the change to the provider immediately B. Stop all prescribed eye medications without instruction C. Increase salt intake D. Ignore the change until the next annual visit 19. Which action promotes independence and safety for a legally blind patient? A. Move furniture frequently without explanation B. Leave obstacles in the walking path C. Use clock-face terms for item placement and allow the patient to hold the nurse's arm above the elbow while walking D. Feed every meal without allowing self-care 20. Which triad is characteristic of Meniere disease? A. Episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss B. Pain, pallor, and pulselessness C. Tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia D. Blurred vision, diplopia, and halos 21. Which description matches dry macular degeneration in the uploaded materials? A. It is a temporary cerebral blood-flow interruption B. It is the most common type and is associated with gradual retinal changes and drusen C. It is caused by fixation of the stapes D. It causes sudden severe eye pain and nausea 22. Which nursing action is emphasized during and after alteplase therapy? A. Giving food before a swallowing screen B. Routine invasive line insertion C. Unrestricted ambulation immediately after infusion D. Frequent neurologic assessments and monitoring for bleeding 23. Which diagnostic screening is emphasized for osteoporosis in the uploaded review? A. EEG B. Tympanotomy C. Amsler grid D. DEXA scan 24. Which communication approach is appropriate for a patient with aphasia according to the key concepts? A. Avoid all nonverbal communication B. Speak rapidly and use long explanations C. Increase environmental noise to improve attention D. Use short sentences, allow time, and use yes/no questions or a communication board 25. Which statement about the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) is consistent with the uploaded Exam 3 notes? A. The scale is used only for hearing loss B. A higher score indicates a worse neurologic status C. The scale measures only eye opening D. A higher score indicates better neurologic function 26. A patient has sudden unilateral shooting, stabbing, burning facial pain. Which cranial nerve disorder is most consistent with this presentation? A. Trigeminal neuralgia involving cranial nerve V B. Bell palsy involving cranial nerve VII C. Meniere disease of the inner ear D. Otosclerosis of the stapes 27. Which finding is most consistent with primary open-angle glaucoma? A. Painless clouding of the lens only B. Sudden curtain over one eye C. Progressive, painless loss of peripheral vision D. Sudden severe eye pain with nausea 28. Which cognitive pattern is associated with a right-sided stroke in the uploaded review? A. Awareness of deficits with prominent language and logic problems B. Unawareness of deficits with spatial or perceptual problems C. Only painless lens clouding D. Isolated hearing loss with tinnitus 29. Which factor can delay fracture healing according to the uploaded materials? A. Poor vascularity or infection at the fracture site B. Adequate stabilization and good circulation C. Appropriate weight bearing as instructed D. Adequate nutrition and adherence 30. Which finding is an early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in the uploaded review? A. Fixed flaccidity of all four limbs B. Papilledema as the only initial finding C. Cushing triad D. Change in level of consciousness 31. Which instruction is appropriate after total hip arthroplasty? A. Use low chairs and cross the legs frequently B. Internally rotate the toes C. Turn onto the operative side unless not prescribed D. Avoid hip flexion greater than 90 degrees and do not cross the legs 32. A gas bubble is placed during a retinal detachment repair. Which position is emphasized in the uploaded key concepts? A. Trendelenburg B. Supine with the head flat C. Prone D. High Fowler with neck hyperextended 33. Which complication of advancing Parkinson disease requires a swallowing evaluation and aspiration precautions? A. Otorrhea B. Tinnitus C. Dysphagia D. Diplopia 34. Which assessment finding is most consistent with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the uploaded review? A. Pill-rolling tremor B. Painless cloudy lens C. Unilateral facial paralysis D. Leg swelling, warmth, and calf or leg tenderness 35. What is the intended effect of pilocarpine in glaucoma according to the uploaded review? A. Increase aqueous humor production B. Create a lens opacity C. Constrict the pupil to improve aqueous humor circulation and outflow D. Increase inner-ear fluid 36. Which intervention helps prevent hip flexion contracture after a lower-extremity amputation? A. Use proper positioning and have the patient lie prone for short periods several times a day B. Encourage prolonged sitting C. Elevate the residual limb indefinitely on pillows D. Keep the residual limb flexed continuously 37. Which environmental intervention is appropriate for a patient with a cerebral aneurysm or increased ICP? A. Encourage repeated vigorous coughing B. Keep the patient flat and increase noise C. Keep lights bright and encourage frequent straining D. Reduce stimulation with a quiet, dim environment 38. Osteomalacia is associated with which deficiency in the uploaded review? A. Vitamin D deficiency B. Vitamin K excess C. Dopamine deficiency D. Aqueous humor excess 39. Which condition is identified as a common cause of conductive hearing loss in the uploaded notes? A. Macular degeneration B. Damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve C. Impacted cerumen D. Parkinson disease 40. Which pattern is associated with a left-sided stroke in the uploaded review? A. Awareness of deficits with language, math, and logic problems B. Fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss C. Painless progressive peripheral vision loss D. Unawareness of deficits with spatial problems 41. Which statement correctly distinguishes a strain from a sprain according to the uploaded review? A. A strain is a vascular clot; a sprain is a seizure B. A strain involves muscle or tendon; a sprain involves a ligament C. A strain involves only bone; a sprain involves only skin D. A strain is a joint replacement; a sprain is an amputation 42. Which post-cataract finding should be reported promptly according to the uploaded notes? A. Use of prescribed ophthalmic medication B. Increasing or significant eye pain C. Mild itching D. Need for light activity 43. Which gait finding is consistent with Parkinson disease in the uploaded key concepts? A. Wide-based gait caused by a flail segment B. Pain relieved by lowering the leg C. Sudden inability to see central objects D. Short, shuffling steps 44. A patient with a long-bone fracture becomes restless and dyspneic and develops petechiae. Which complication is most likely based on the uploaded review? A. Fat embolism B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Otosclerosis D. Osteoarthritis 45. A patient reports brief, intense, non-throbbing unilateral pain deep around one eye that recurs at about the same time each day. Which headache pattern best matches the course notes? A. Migraine without aura B. Status migrainous C. Postdrome D. Cluster headache 46. Which assessment finding is most consistent with osteomyelitis? A. Constant, pulsating localized bone pain that worsens with movement B. Brief unilateral facial pain only C. Fluctuating hearing loss without bone pain D. Painless peripheral vision loss 47. Which manifestation is most consistent with pulmonary embolism in the uploaded musculoskeletal review? A. Only painless central vision loss B. Sudden dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, hypoxia, and sharp chest pain C. Only localized great-toe pain D. Only progressive hearing loss 48. A nurse is completing a rapid neurologic assessment. Which finding represents the highest possible Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score? A. 8 B. 12 C. 15 D. 3 49. Which crutch-teaching point is emphasized in the key concepts? A. Avoid using the hand grips B. Support body weight directly in the axillae C. Bear weight through the hands, not the axillae D. Keep elbows fully locked at all times 50. Which set contains the four characteristic signs of Parkinson disease listed in the uploaded review? A. Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and nausea B. Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia/akinesia, and postural instability C. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, and pulselessness D. Blurred vision, diplopia, halos, and drainage 51. Which finding is typical of chronic otitis media in the uploaded review? A. Persistent or intermittent foul-smelling otorrhea with hearing loss B. Sudden curtain over vision C. Severe great-toe pain after organ meats D. Pill-rolling tremor 52. Which postoperative finding after hip or knee arthroplasty should make the nurse suspect a pulmonary embolism? A. Painless blurred vision B. Shortness of breath and chest pain C. Tinnitus without dyspnea D. Mild incision itching 53. A patient with low-back pain reports new bowel and bladder incontinence. What should the nurse do based on the uploaded review? A. Reassure the patient that this is an expected finding B. Report the finding promptly because it can indicate a more serious condition C. Encourage prolonged sitting D. Delay reporting until the next routine visit 54. How does timolol help manage glaucoma according to the uploaded review? A. It increases endolymph in the inner ear B. It increases aqueous humor production C. It dissolves retinal tissue D. It decreases intraocular pressure by reducing aqueous humor production 55. Which medication class is listed for Paget disease management in the uploaded review? A. Bisphosphonates B. Benzodiazepines C. Triptans D. Antivertigo antihistamines 56. Which set contains the five P's used to assess acute compartment syndrome? A. Pain, pressure, pulse, pupils, and posture B. Pain, paralysis, paresthesia, pallor, and pulselessness C. Paresthesia, polyuria, polydipsia, pulse, and pressure D. Pallor, ptosis, photophobia, pulse, and pain 57. Which diet teaching is appropriate for gout according to the uploaded notes? A. Avoid high-purine foods such as organ meats and certain seafood B. Eliminate all calcium and vitamin D C. Increase processed high-sodium foods D. Increase organ meats and shellfish 58. Which action should the nurse take during a tonic-clonic seizure based on the uploaded review? A. Place an object in the patient's mouth B. Turn the patient or the patient's head to the side when possible C. Force the patient to sit upright D. Offer oral fluids immediately 59. Which position is recommended for a patient with increased ICP in the uploaded review? A. Trendelenburg with the head turned B. Head of bed about 30 degrees with the head midline and neutral C. Flat with the neck sharply flexed D. Prone with the head below the heart 60. After total knee arthroplasty, which assessment is emphasized every 2 to 4 hours? A. Neurovascular status of the operative extremity B. Amsler grid testing C. Inner-ear fluid assessment D. Cranial nerve VII testing only 61. Which description best matches phantom limb pain after amputation? A. Pain limited to the opposite eye B. Pain caused only by an intact joint surface C. Pain perceived in the location of the removed extremity D. Pain caused by increased aqueous humor 62. Which foreign object in the ear should NOT be irrigated according to the uploaded notes? A. An ear canal requiring gentle warm-water irrigation B. A non-swelling obstruction approved for irrigation C. Cerumen causing fullness D. An object that can swell with fluid 63. A patient arrives with new stroke-like symptoms. Which action should the nurse perform first according to the uploaded acute stroke sequence? A. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation B. Teach a heart-healthy diet C. Complete a swallowing screen D. Begin long-term physical therapy 64. Which situation meets the uploaded review's definition of status epilepticus? A. A TIA lasting 30 minutes B. A prolonged seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or repeated seizures without adequate recovery C. A migraine lasting 4 hours D. A brief myoclonic jerk lasting a few seconds 65. Which sequence represents the RICE method for a sprain or strain? A. Rest, ice, compression, elevation B. Range of motion, irrigation, casting, exercise C. Reduction, immobilization, circulation, evaluation D. Rest, incision, calcium, extension 66. What is identified as the leading complication of osteoporosis in the uploaded review? A. Retinal detachment B. Bell palsy C. Fractures D. Meniere attacks 67. Which nursing intervention is appropriate for Bell palsy according to the uploaded notes? A. Restrict all facial movement B. Facial muscle exercises and protection from eye injury C. Encourage chewing gum to trigger facial pain D. Place the patient flat and increase stimulation 68. Which condition is listed as a cause of a pathologic fracture in the uploaded review? A. Meniere disease B. Conjunctivitis C. Osteoporosis D. Bell palsy 69. Which teaching is appropriate for bacterial conjunctivitis? A. Perform frequent hand hygiene and discard contaminated eye makeup or contact lenses B. Share towels to reduce waste C. Touch the unaffected eye after touching the affected eye D. Stop cleaning bedding until symptoms resolve 70. A stroke patient has dysphagia. Which intervention is the priority before giving medications, fluids, or food by mouth? A. Complete a swallowing screen B. Encourage the patient to strain during a bowel movement C. Lower the head of bed flat D. Place food on the affected visual side 71. A patient with external otitis has a canal that is swollen nearly shut. Which treatment detail appears in the uploaded key concepts? A. An abduction pillow is used B. A fasciotomy is performed C. A wick may be used to deliver antibiotic ear drops D. A gas bubble is placed in the vitreous cavity 72. Which description best matches osteoarthritis in the uploaded review? A. A retinal disorder causing central vision loss B. A neurologic disease caused by loss of dopamine C. A common non-inflammatory arthritis with progressive cartilage loss, pain, stiffness, and crepitus D. An acute infectious arthritis caused by ear drainage 73. Which risk factor is identified in the key concepts as the number-one contributing factor for hemorrhagic stroke? A. Otosclerosis B. Cerumen impaction C. Vitamin D deficiency D. Hypertension 74. Which finding is identified as the FIRST sign of acute compartment syndrome in the uploaded notes? A. Paresthesia B. Paralysis C. Flaccid paralysis of all four limbs D. Pulselessness 75. Which symptom is most characteristic of retinal detachment? A. Gradual pill-rolling tremor B. Foul-smelling ear drainage C. Cramping pain in the great toe after years without attacks D. A sudden painless curtain or shade over vision with flashes or floaters 76. Which instruction can help reduce intraocular pressure after cataract surgery when the patient must sneeze? A. Bend forward while sneezing B. Sneeze with the mouth open C. Hold the sneeze in D. Lie on the affected eye 77. A patient with Parkinson disease functions best shortly after receiving prescribed medication. How should the nurse plan activity? A. Schedule all activity immediately before medication B. Schedule activity only during sleep attacks C. Schedule activity when the medication is providing the patient's best function D. Avoid activity throughout the day 78. Which finding best describes the tonic phase of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure? A. Gradual painless peripheral vision loss B. Brief loss of muscle tone without loss of consciousness C. Only unilateral facial pain D. Muscle stiffening with immediate loss of consciousness 79. Which set of findings makes up the Cushing triad described in the uploaded ICP notes? A. Increasing systolic blood pressure, decreasing pulse, and altered respiratory pattern B. Tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing loss C. Low blood pressure, rapid pulse, and regular respirations D. Pain, pallor, and paresthesia only 80. Which manifestation is most consistent with a cataract? A. Fluctuating vertigo with tinnitus B. Sudden curtain across one eye C. Progressive, painless blurred vision with reduced night vision D. Sudden severe eye pain with nausea 81. A patient arrives with acute neurologic changes. Which diagnostic study is identified in the uploaded review as a quick, accurate, painless method and the gold standard for ruling out neurologic injury? A. Electroencephalography (EEG) B. Cerebral angiography C. Computed tomography (CT) D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) 82. Which discharge instruction is appropriate after mastoid or middle-ear surgery according to the key concepts? A. Keep water out of the ear and avoid lifting or straining B. Blow both sides of the nose forcefully C. Submerge the ear daily D. Perform heavy lifting to improve drainage 83. A patient becomes unaware of the environment, wanders for several minutes, and later has amnesia for the event. Which seizure type matches the uploaded review? A. Simple partial seizure B. Myoclonic seizure C. Complex partial seizure D. Atonic seizure 84. Which procedure is used to relieve pressure in acute compartment syndrome? A. Stapedectomy B. Vitrectomy C. Mastoidectomy D. Fasciotomy 85. Which visual deficit is expected with age-related macular degeneration (AMD)? A. Only loss of smell B. Only loss of hearing in groups C. Loss of central vision D. Only peripheral nerve motor loss 86. A patient awakens with stroke symptoms. Which time should the nurse use when considering thrombolytic eligibility? A. The time the CT scan was completed B. The time the patient was last known to be normal C. The time the family first called the hospital D. The time the patient arrived at the hospital 87. Which finding is listed as an eligibility parameter for alteplase in the uploaded review? A. More than 4.5 hours since last known normal B. A recent brain or gastrointestinal bleed C. Blood pressure above 220/120 mmHg D. Blood pressure at or below 185/110 mmHg 88. Which procedure is identified for acute otitis media to relieve pressure and drain fluid? A. Tympanotomy or myringotomy B. Vitrectomy C. Stapedectomy D. Craniotomy 89. Which patient instruction is associated with selegiline in the uploaded Parkinson disease review? A. Avoid tyramine-rich foods such as aged, smoked, or cured foods B. Lie flat for 30 minutes after taking it C. Increase processed meats and canned foods D. Drink alcohol with each dose 90. Presbycusis in the uploaded notes refers to which condition? A. A traumatic tympanic membrane rupture B. A sudden retinal detachment C. Age-related hearing loss from loss of sensory hair cells D. A fixed stapes from otosclerosis 91. When should a prescribed triptan be taken for migraine management according to the uploaded review? A. Only after the postdrome begins B. As soon as the headache is felt C. After 72 hours of continuous pain D. Only when nausea has completely resolved 92. Which procedure is used to treat otosclerosis in the uploaded notes? A. Mastoidectomy B. Stapedectomy C. Arthroplasty D. Fasciotomy 93. Which dietary teaching is emphasized for Meniere disease? A. Avoid calcium and vitamin D B. Follow a low-sodium diet and limit processed or high-salt foods C. Follow a high-purine diet D. Increase processed meats and canned foods 94. Which instruction is appropriate for a patient taking an oral bisphosphonate? A. Take it at bedtime and lie flat immediately B. Take it while bending forward for 30 minutes C. Take it with a high-purine meal D. Take it with 8 oz of water in the morning before eating and remain upright for 30 minutes 95. A patient has unilateral facial paralysis caused by inflammation of cranial nerve VII. Which disorder should the nurse recognize? A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Bell palsy C. Meniere disease D. Parkinson disease 96. Why is mannitol used in the management of increased ICP according to the uploaded notes? A. It raises uric acid levels B. It increases inner-ear fluid C. It fixes the stapes in place D. It is an osmotic diuretic used to pull fluid out and reduce swelling 97. During a tonic-clonic seizure, which nursing priority is repeatedly emphasized in the uploaded Exam 3 materials? A. Restricting all movement with force B. Increasing environmental stimulation C. Giving food during the seizure D. Safety 98. A patient receives meclizine for Meniere disease. Which safety concern is emphasized in the uploaded review? A. Severe hyperuricemia B. Risk of hip flexion contracture C. Sedation with increased risk during ambulation or driving D. Immediate loss of peripheral vision 99. Which patient is described as an appropriate candidate for a cochlear implant in the uploaded notes? A. A patient with a mild temporary conductive loss from a foreign object B. A patient with a simple cerumen impaction C. A patient with profound bilateral sensorineural hearing loss who does not benefit from conventional hearing aids D. A patient with acute otitis media lasting less than 6 weeks 100. Which presentation is most consistent with acute angle-closure glaucoma? A. Rapid onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, halos, and nausea B. Painless cloudy lens with night glare C. Gradual central vision loss without acute pain D. Gradual painless peripheral vision loss