NSG 3250 (NSG3250) Adult Health I Exam 2 – Complete Q&A Review guide | Galen College of Nursing | Updated 2026–2027.

Galen NSG 3250 (NSG3250) Adult Health I – Exam 2. Below are **all 75 questions with multiple-choice options only** from the uploaded **NSG 3250: Adult Health I — Exam 2, Fall 2026** PDF. Correct answers and rationales have been removed. 1. Which statement best describes ventilation? A. It is the portion of the tracheobronchial tree that does not participate in gas exchange. B. It reflects the mechanics of breathing as measured by lung volumes and capacities. C. It is the blood flow through the pulmonary vasculature. D. It is the exchange of O2 and CO2 across the alveolar-capillary interface. 2. The nurse is reviewing respiratory physiology. Which process describes movement of O2 and CO2 from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration at the air-blood interface? A. Pulmonary diffusion B. Ventilation C. Pulmonary perfusion D. Physiologic dead space 3. Which term refers to blood flow through the pulmonary vasculature? A. Hyperventilation B. Pulmonary diffusion C. Pulmonary perfusion D. Ventilation 4. A client has pneumonia causing distal airway obstruction. Which ventilation-perfusion finding is most consistent with the uploaded Exam 2 overview? A. A high-flow oxygen system delivering a fixed concentration B. A low V/Q ratio in which perfusion exceeds ventilation C. Physiologic dead space caused by equal ventilation and perfusion D. A normal 1:1 V/Q ratio 5. Which respiratory assessment finding is described as a very late indicator of hypoxia? A. Dyspnea B. Wheezing C. Cyanosis D. Cough 6. During auscultation, the nurse hears a continuous high-pitched musical sound over the neck. What is the priority interpretation? A. Egophony caused by normal voice transmission B. Stridor indicating narrowing of the upper respiratory tract and requiring immediate intervention C. Rhonchi caused by partial lower-airway obstruction D. Crackles caused by loss of lubricating pleural fluid 7. Which breath sound is described as a deep, low-pitched snoring sound associated with partial airway obstruction? A. Stridor B. Bronchophony C. Crackles D. Rhonchi 8. While assessing transmitted voice sounds, the nurse asks a client to say “E” and hears a sound resembling “A.” Which finding is this? A. Bronchophony B. Stridor C. Egophony D. Fremitus 9. A client has rounded, bulbous distal phalanges and a nail angle of 180 degrees or more. The nurse associates this finding with which condition in the study guide? A. Venous insufficiency B. Chronic hypoxia C. Contact dermatitis D. Acute viral rhinitis 10. Which diagnostic method noninvasively monitors the percentage of hemoglobin bound to oxygen? A. Pulse oximetry B. Pulmonary function testing C. Arterial blood gas study D. End-tidal CO2 monitoring 11. The nurse wants immediate noninvasive information about ventilation, perfusion, and metabolism. Which monitoring method is identified for this purpose? A. End-tidal CO2 monitoring B. Ankle-brachial index C. Doppler ultrasound D. MRI 12. A client presents with active epistaxis. Which initial position is supported by the Exam 2 source? A. Lie flat with the head extended B. Place the client prone with the head turned to the side C. Sit upright with the head tilted forward D. Sit upright with the head tilted backward 13. A client repeatedly uses topical phenylephrine for nasal congestion and now reports worse congestion. Which condition does the source describe? A. Allergic rhinitis B. Epistaxis C. Rhinitis medicamentosa D. Viral rhinitis 14. Which cluster represents the classic “3 S’s” of obstructive sleep apnea? A. Snoring, sleepiness, and a significant other’s report of apnea episodes B. Sore throat, sinus pain, and sneezing C. Sneezing, sputum, and stridor D. Sweating, syncope, and sputum 15. Which intervention is specifically listed for obstructive sleep apnea in the Exam 2 concepts? A. Use a topical retinoid B. Use a cool moist compress on the affected limb C. Use a chest drainage system D. Use CPAP 16. Which description best matches community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in the overview? A. Pneumonia occurring in the community or within the first 48 hours after hospitalization in a client not meeting HCAP criteria B. Pneumonia that occurs only in clients receiving chemotherapy C. Pneumonia in any nonhospitalized client with extensive health-care contact D. Pneumonia that occurs only after prolonged mechanical ventilation 17. Which assessment pattern is most consistent with active tuberculosis according to the Exam 2 overview? A. Dependent rubor, diminished pulses, and foot pain at rest B. Sudden rash, vesicles, and unilateral burning pain C. Low-grade fever, cough, night sweats, fatigue, and weight loss D. Daytime sleepiness, loud snoring, and morning headache 18. Which intervention is emphasized for prevention of atelectasis? A. Use sedatives routinely to reduce respiratory effort B. Early mobilization with deep breathing, coughing, and incentive spirometry C. Keep the client flat and minimize activity D. Restrict coughing to avoid airway irritation 19. Which action is included in aspiration prevention for a client receiving care? A. Keep the client flat after feeding B. Maintain the head of the bed at 30 to 45 degrees C. Begin oral feeding immediately after extubation without a swallowing evaluation D. Use sedatives freely to reduce coughing 20. Which pathophysiologic change is central to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in the overview? A. Severe V/Q mismatch with shunting and refractory hypoxemia after alveolar-capillary injury B. Fully reversible airflow obstruction without hypoxemia C. Venous valve reflux producing lower-extremity edema D. Isolated nasal mucosal inflammation 21. Which laboratory pattern is listed as an indication for mechanical ventilation? A. PaO2 above 90 mm Hg with normal work of breathing B. PaO2 less than 55 mm Hg, PaCO2 greater than 50 mm Hg, and pH less than 7.32 C. An ABI of 1.00 to 1.40 D. Normal oxygenation with no respiratory distress 22. A client with pulmonary hypertension is worsening. Which assessment findings are consistent with the source? A. White oral plaques and gingival swelling B. Bull’s-eye rash and flu-like symptoms C. Crusty yellow skin lesions and pruritus D. Dyspnea, fatigue, syncope, peripheral edema, and distended neck veins 23. The nurse observes a free-floating segment of the rib cage that moves inward on inspiration and outward on expiration. Which condition is present? A. Chronic bronchitis B. Atelectasis C. Flail chest D. Pneumonia 24. Which observation in the water-seal chamber of a traditional chest drainage system is described as evidence that the system is functioning properly? A. Continuous absence of any chamber activity in all circumstances B. No collection chamber present C. Intermittent bubbling D. A fixed high-flow oxygen concentration 25. Which factor accounts for the largest proportion of COPD cases in the source? A. Long-term topical retinoid use B. Exposure to tobacco smoke C. Frequent handwashing D. Seasonal pollen exposure 26. Which definition best matches chronic bronchitis? A. Cough and sputum production for more than 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years B. A free-floating rib segment after trauma C. A rapidly reversible condition caused only by allergens D. A temporary upper-airway obstruction during sleep 27. Which change is described in emphysema? A. Inflammation limited to the nasal mucosa B. Venous valve obstruction causing backflow C. Formation of crusty yellow superficial skin lesions D. Destruction of overdistended alveolar walls with loss of surface area for gas exchange 28. A client has severe, persistent asthma that does not respond to conventional therapy. Which condition is this? A. Pulmonary perfusion B. Status asthmaticus C. Rhinitis medicamentosa D. Chronic venous insufficiency 29. A client’s peak expiratory flow is 85% of personal best. Which zone is this? A. Dead-space zone B. Red zone C. Green zone D. Yellow zone 30. A client’s peak expiratory flow falls below 60% of personal best. What does the source indicate? A. The client is in the green zone and needs no change B. The client is in the normal V/Q zone C. The client is in the red zone and should take prescribed actions and seek help D. The client is in the yellow zone defined as 80% to 100% 31. Which medication class is identified as the quick-relief rescue treatment for asthma in the Exam 2 concepts? A. Methotrexate B. Famciclovir C. Topical retinoid D. Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist 32. Which statement by a client about an inhaled corticosteroid is consistent with the Exam 2 concepts? A. “This is my quick-relief rescue inhaler for immediate bronchodilation.” B. “I use this medication only to remove head-lice nits.” C. “I use this medication to treat herpes zoster.” D. “This is a maintenance medication that I use on a daily basis.” 33. Which adverse effects are emphasized with corticosteroid therapy in the Exam 2 materials? A. Increased infection risk and increased blood glucose B. Bull’s-eye rash and night sweats C. Decreased infection risk and hypoglycemia D. Venous ulceration and absent pulses 34. According to the handwritten Exam 2 notes, a client with an asthma attack has an oxygen saturation of 89% to 91%. Which oxygen therapy is listed? A. No oxygen because the saturation is normal B. CPAP only for every asthma attack C. Nasal cannula at 2 L D. Chest tube suction 35. Which breathing technique is emphasized when a client uses a nebulizer? A. Slow, deep breaths with diaphragmatic breathing B. Breath-holding without inhalation C. Forceful coughing throughout the entire treatment D. Rapid shallow breaths 36. A client in status asthmaticus has markedly decreased wheezing compared with earlier. Why is this a priority finding in the Exam 2 concepts? A. It confirms venous insufficiency B. It is expected after a skin infection C. It always indicates complete recovery D. Decreased wheezing may mean little or no air movement 37. Which parameter should the nurse monitor closely while suctioning a client? A. INR only B. Oxygen saturation C. Skin lesion diameter D. Ankle-brachial index 38. Which teaching is most appropriate for a client exposed to occupational lung hazards such as pneumoconiosis, asbestosis, or silicosis? A. Increase exposure gradually to build tolerance B. Reduce exposure and use protective gear such as an N95, respirator, or goggles C. Use topical corticosteroids on the chest D. Avoid all protective devices because the disease is treatable 39. A client arrives in the emergency department with shortness of breath and possible pulmonary embolism. Which actions are emphasized in the uploaded notes? A. Assess oxygen saturation and ask when the symptoms began B. Immediately assess a skin lesion for symmetry C. Ask only about vitamin K intake D. Begin a high-protein diet before assessing breathing 40. Which statement correctly compares low-flow and high-flow oxygen systems? A. High-flow systems provide a specific oxygen percentage independent of the client’s breathing pattern B. Low-flow and high-flow systems are described as identical in performance C. High-flow systems require the client to breathe a large amount of room air D. Low-flow systems always provide a constant precise oxygen concentration 41. A client reports calf discomfort that occurs at the same walking distance and is relieved by rest. Which finding is this? A. Rhinitis medicamentosa B. Egophony C. Venous ulceration D. Intermittent claudication 42. A client with severe peripheral arterial disease reports foot pain at night while resting. Which action is described as improving perfusion? A. Apply a hot bath to the leg B. Keep the leg flat and immobile at all times C. Elevate the extremity above heart level D. Lower the extremity to a dependent position 43. Which assessment finding is most consistent with arterial insufficiency? A. Diminished or absent pulses with cool, shiny skin and pallor on elevation B. Moderate to severe edema with gaiter-area pigmentation C. Normal pulses with vesicular rash D. Warm skin with crusty yellow lesions 44. Which ulcer location is most consistent with venous insufficiency in the overview? A. Tip of the toes or web spaces B. Only the palms of the hands C. Medial or lateral malleolus or anterior tibial area D. Only the scalp 45. Which ankle-brachial index (ABI) finding is identified as abnormal? A. Less than 0.90 B. Any value above 1.00 C. Exactly 1.20 in every client D. 1.00 to 1.40 46. Which client has a venous-stasis risk factor for venous thromboembolism? A. A client with seasonal pollen exposure B. A client with a unilateral herpes zoster rash C. An older adult on prolonged bed rest with obesity D. A client using topical retinoids for acne 47. Which teaching is appropriate for a client taking warfarin according to the overview? A. Ignore bruising or red and black stools B. No blood monitoring is required C. Maintain regular INR monitoring and avoid marked changes in vitamin K-rich food intake D. Increase and decrease green leafy vegetables dramatically from day to day 48. What is identified as the most serious complication of chronic venous insufficiency? A. Acne vulgaris B. Stridor C. Rhinitis medicamentosa D. Venous ulceration 49. Which description best matches atopy? A. A genetic predisposition to mount an IgE response to inhaled or ingested proteins B. A bacterial skin infection caused by a cut or bruise C. A non-genetic response limited to latex exposure D. A venous disorder caused by reflux through valves 50. A client develops a drug eruption while taking an antibiotic. Which nursing action is emphasized in the Exam 2 concepts and handwritten notes? A. Continue the drug until the rash becomes severe B. Apply heat to increase vasodilation C. Double the dose to finish treatment sooner D. Stop the medication and notify the provider so therapy can be changed 51. Which nursing care is appropriate for HSV-2 according to the study materials? A. Hot baths and tight clothing B. Analgesics and antivirals, loose clothing, sitz baths, and cool compresses C. Scrubbing lesions vigorously D. No symptom management because the condition is always cured after one episode 52. Which medication is listed for herpes zoster in the Exam 2 concepts? A. Warfarin B. Topical retinoid C. Methotrexate D. Famciclovir 53. Which herpes zoster finding requires urgent attention according to the concepts document? A. Mild itching without eye involvement B. An outbreak involving the eye C. A rash limited to the scalp D. A unilateral rash on the trunk 54. Which teaching is most appropriate for a client with psoriasis taking methotrexate? A. Stop all hygiene measures during treatment B. Use only hot water on the lesions C. Do not pick or scrub the lesions and monitor for signs of infection D. Scrub plaques vigorously to remove scales 55. Which intervention is emphasized for atopic dermatitis? A. Use moisturization and hydration in a cool environment and avoid hot baths B. Keep the skin dry and avoid moisturizer C. Scrub lesions to remove dry skin D. Use hot baths to increase vasodilation 56. What is the key nursing principle for contact dermatitis? A. Continue contact with the irritant until the rash resolves B. Increase heat exposure to improve circulation C. Use vigorous scratching to remove papules D. Remove or avoid the causative irritant and avoid heat 57. A client has cellulitis of the lower leg. Which intervention is supported by the Exam 2 concepts? A. Massage the inflamed area vigorously B. Elevate the limb and apply a cool moist compress C. Keep the limb dependent to increase swelling D. Use only a hot compress 58. Which intervention is appropriate for impetigo? A. Scrub the lesions repeatedly with hot water B. Pick the crusts to expose the skin C. Avoid handwashing because the condition is not contagious D. Keep the lesions clean and dry, perform hand hygiene, and apply antibiotic ointment as ordered 59. Which treatment is listed for acne in the Exam 2 concepts? A. Methotrexate as the primary acne drug B. Famciclovir C. Topical retinoids with regular face washing D. Warfarin 60. Which consequence of excessive antibiotic use is repeatedly emphasized in the uploaded Exam 2 materials? A. Immediate improvement in psoriasis B. Permanent elimination of all fungal growth C. Prevention of all allergic reactions D. Overgrowth of yeast leading to yeast infection 61. Which group of conditions is assigned airborne precautions in the Exam 2 concepts? A. Acne, psoriasis, and cellulitis B. Tuberculosis, varicella, and measles C. C. difficile, MRSA, and scabies D. Influenza, meningitis, and pertussis 62. Which infection is specifically listed under droplet precautions? A. Pertussis B. Tuberculosis C. Scabies D. C. difficile 63. Which infection is specifically listed under contact precautions? A. Tuberculosis B. Scabies C. Measles D. Pertussis 64. Which finding is characteristic of scabies in the uploaded notes? A. Surface-dwelling lice without burrows B. A pearly waxy nodule with rolled borders C. A unilateral vesicular rash only on one side of the trunk D. Burrowing or tunneling tracks in the skin 65. Which statement about head lice is consistent with the Exam 2 concepts? A. Lice burrow deeply into the skin like scabies mites B. Head lice indicate poor hygiene in every case C. Head lice are treated with famciclovir D. Lice are surface-dwelling and nits may be removed with a fine-tooth comb 66. Which finding is most characteristic of Lyme disease in the uploaded study materials? A. Crusty yellow lesions after a bacterial skin infection B. A bull’s-eye appearing rash with flu-like symptoms after a deer-tick exposure C. A pearly lesion with rolled borders D. A unilateral vesicular rash caused by herpes zoster 67. Which teaching is emphasized for melanoma prevention? A. Minimize sun exposure and use sun-protective measures B. Pick irregular lesions to assess depth C. Increase midday sun exposure D. Use hot water on suspicious lesions 68. Which description best matches a Stage II pressure ulcer in the handwritten Exam 2 notes? A. The skin is not intact and the dermis is affected B. A venous ulcer located only at the medial malleolus C. Intact skin with no tissue involvement D. A lesion limited to a nail plate 69. Which plan is emphasized for prevention and care of pressure ulcers in the handwritten notes? A. Use hot water and scrub the pressure area B. Avoid nutritional support until the ulcer is healed C. Reposition about every 2 hours and support adequate protein intake D. Keep the client in one position and restrict protein 70. A client has a severe immediate allergic reaction. Which emergency medication is emphasized in the overview? A. Warfarin B. Topical retinoid C. Autoinjectable epinephrine D. Famciclovir 71. Which symptoms are described as the hallmark manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? A. Vesicles and unilateral burning B. Pyrosis and regurgitation C. Night sweats and hemoptysis D. Intermittent claudication and rest pain 72. A client is receiving continuous enteral feeding and is at risk for aspiration. Which action is included in the source? A. Maintain the head of the bed at 30 to 45 degrees B. Keep the client flat during feeding C. Ignore signs of vomiting or bloating D. Use bolus feeding specifically because aspiration risk is high 73. Which instruction is included in prevention of dumping syndrome after bariatric surgery? A. Stand and walk immediately throughout the meal B. Avoid drinking fluids with meals and remain in a low-Fowler position for 20 to 30 minutes afterward C. Use large meals greater than 1 cup to slow emptying D. Drink large amounts of fluid with each meal 74. A client has thick, white, curdy vaginal discharge with pruritus, edema, and erythema. Which condition is described? A. Trichomonas vaginitis B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Cervicitis D. Candidiasis 75. Which prevention strategy is emphasized for cervical cancer in the overview? A. Use continuous enteral feeding B. Use topical nasal decongestants long term C. HPV immunization along with regular pelvic examinations and Pap testing D. Avoid all vitamin K-rich foods