NSG 526
EXAM 2
(Family Nursing)
Actual Questions w/Correct Answers
(NCLEX (NGN) style Questions)
Herzing University
What you Will Get:
• 50+ verified questions
• Correct answers with Rationales.
• Ideal for exam preparation and concept reinforcement.
,Question 1. A young married couple asks the nurse at a community outreach
clinic for guidance about having children because the wife was born with a cleft
lip and palate, and the husband has an uncle with a cleft lip. Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Refer the couple to a genetic counselor or geneticist.
B. Tell the couple that every child they conceive will have a cleft lip.
C. Recommend that the couple avoid having biological children.
D. Explain that family history does not influence the risk for cleft lip.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A genetic counselor or geneticist can review the couple’s family histories, discuss
recurrence risk, and explain available reproductive and prenatal testing options.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option B: A family history does not mean every child will be affected.
Option C: The nurse should provide information and referral rather than make
reproductive decisions for the couple.
Option D: Family history can contribute to assessment of genetic and multifactorial
conditions.
Question 2. Prior to performing a postpartum assessment, the client states, “I
have pain in my stitches.” The nurse knows the client had a midline episiotomy.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer a prescribed analgesic.
B. Visualize the perineum and assess the episiotomy.
C. Apply a heating pad to the perineum.
D. Encourage the client to ambulate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Assessment should precede intervention. The nurse should inspect the episiotomy for
edema, bruising, hematoma, separation, drainage, redness, or another cause of the
pain.
Why the other options are incorrect:
,Option A: Medication may be indicated after the cause and severity of pain are
assessed.
Option C: Treatment should not be applied before examining the site.
Option D: Ambulation does not determine the cause of episiotomy pain.
Question 3. A premenopausal client with uterine leiomyomas reports that her
menstrual bleeding has increased in volume and duration. Which assessment
should the nurse perform first?
A. Measure abdominal circumference.
B. Review the client’s dietary history.
C. Measure the client’s vital signs.
D. Assess the client’s last Pap test date.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Heavy and prolonged menstrual bleeding may produce significant blood loss. Assessing
vital signs first helps determine whether the client is hemodynamically stable.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A: Abdominal assessment may be useful but does not establish immediate
stability.
Option B: Dietary history may later help assess iron intake.
Option D: Cervical screening history is not the priority in a client reporting increased
bleeding.
Question 4. A client with cervical cancer is admitted for placement of a cervical
radiation implant. Which instruction should the nurse provide before insertion of
the applicator?
A. Frequent ambulation will be encouraged.
B. Bed rest with minimal turning should be maintained.
C. The client should perform pelvic exercises every hour.
D. The client should sit in a chair for all meals.
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale:
Bed rest and limited movement help prevent displacement of the intracavitary radiation
applicator.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A: Ambulation can displace the implant.
Option C: Pelvic exercises are inappropriate while the implant is in place.
Option D: Upright positioning and unnecessary movement may interfere with implant
positioning.
Question 5. A 26-year-old gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted in labor. The cervix
is 4 cm dilated, 70% effaced, and at -1 station. Which three consequences can
result from persistent abnormal fetal heart rate patterns? Select all that apply.
A. Acidemia
B. Hypoxemia
C. Hypoxia
D. Hypercalcemia
E. Maternal hyperglycemia
F. Polycythemia
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale:
Option A – Correct: Prolonged inadequate fetal oxygenation can result in anaerobic
metabolism and acidemia.
Option B – Correct: Abnormal FHR patterns can reflect reduced oxygen levels in fetal
blood.
Option C – Correct: Persistent abnormal fetal heart patterns can indicate ongoing or
impending tissue hypoxia.
Option D – Incorrect: Hypercalcemia is not a primary consequence of fetal oxygen
compromise.
Option E – Incorrect: Maternal hyperglycemia is not produced by abnormal fetal heart
rate patterns.
Option F – Incorrect: Polycythemia is not the immediate fetal consequence identified
in this scenario.
EXAM 2
(Family Nursing)
Actual Questions w/Correct Answers
(NCLEX (NGN) style Questions)
Herzing University
What you Will Get:
• 50+ verified questions
• Correct answers with Rationales.
• Ideal for exam preparation and concept reinforcement.
,Question 1. A young married couple asks the nurse at a community outreach
clinic for guidance about having children because the wife was born with a cleft
lip and palate, and the husband has an uncle with a cleft lip. Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Refer the couple to a genetic counselor or geneticist.
B. Tell the couple that every child they conceive will have a cleft lip.
C. Recommend that the couple avoid having biological children.
D. Explain that family history does not influence the risk for cleft lip.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A genetic counselor or geneticist can review the couple’s family histories, discuss
recurrence risk, and explain available reproductive and prenatal testing options.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option B: A family history does not mean every child will be affected.
Option C: The nurse should provide information and referral rather than make
reproductive decisions for the couple.
Option D: Family history can contribute to assessment of genetic and multifactorial
conditions.
Question 2. Prior to performing a postpartum assessment, the client states, “I
have pain in my stitches.” The nurse knows the client had a midline episiotomy.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer a prescribed analgesic.
B. Visualize the perineum and assess the episiotomy.
C. Apply a heating pad to the perineum.
D. Encourage the client to ambulate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Assessment should precede intervention. The nurse should inspect the episiotomy for
edema, bruising, hematoma, separation, drainage, redness, or another cause of the
pain.
Why the other options are incorrect:
,Option A: Medication may be indicated after the cause and severity of pain are
assessed.
Option C: Treatment should not be applied before examining the site.
Option D: Ambulation does not determine the cause of episiotomy pain.
Question 3. A premenopausal client with uterine leiomyomas reports that her
menstrual bleeding has increased in volume and duration. Which assessment
should the nurse perform first?
A. Measure abdominal circumference.
B. Review the client’s dietary history.
C. Measure the client’s vital signs.
D. Assess the client’s last Pap test date.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Heavy and prolonged menstrual bleeding may produce significant blood loss. Assessing
vital signs first helps determine whether the client is hemodynamically stable.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A: Abdominal assessment may be useful but does not establish immediate
stability.
Option B: Dietary history may later help assess iron intake.
Option D: Cervical screening history is not the priority in a client reporting increased
bleeding.
Question 4. A client with cervical cancer is admitted for placement of a cervical
radiation implant. Which instruction should the nurse provide before insertion of
the applicator?
A. Frequent ambulation will be encouraged.
B. Bed rest with minimal turning should be maintained.
C. The client should perform pelvic exercises every hour.
D. The client should sit in a chair for all meals.
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale:
Bed rest and limited movement help prevent displacement of the intracavitary radiation
applicator.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A: Ambulation can displace the implant.
Option C: Pelvic exercises are inappropriate while the implant is in place.
Option D: Upright positioning and unnecessary movement may interfere with implant
positioning.
Question 5. A 26-year-old gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted in labor. The cervix
is 4 cm dilated, 70% effaced, and at -1 station. Which three consequences can
result from persistent abnormal fetal heart rate patterns? Select all that apply.
A. Acidemia
B. Hypoxemia
C. Hypoxia
D. Hypercalcemia
E. Maternal hyperglycemia
F. Polycythemia
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale:
Option A – Correct: Prolonged inadequate fetal oxygenation can result in anaerobic
metabolism and acidemia.
Option B – Correct: Abnormal FHR patterns can reflect reduced oxygen levels in fetal
blood.
Option C – Correct: Persistent abnormal fetal heart patterns can indicate ongoing or
impending tissue hypoxia.
Option D – Incorrect: Hypercalcemia is not a primary consequence of fetal oxygen
compromise.
Option E – Incorrect: Maternal hyperglycemia is not produced by abnormal fetal heart
rate patterns.
Option F – Incorrect: Polycythemia is not the immediate fetal consequence identified
in this scenario.
