NSG 526
FINAL EXAM
(Family Nursing)
Actual Questions w/Correct Answers
(NCLEX (NGN) style Questions)
Herzing University
What you Will Get:
• 100 verified questions
• Correct answers with Rationales.
• Ideal for exam preparation and concept reinforcement.
,Question 1. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine
fundus of a client who received epidural anesthesia and notes a large amount of
lochia on the perineal pad. The nurse massages at the umbilicus and obtains
current vital signs. Which intervention should the nurse implement next?
A. Increase the rate of the oxytocin infusion.
B. Document the number of pad changes during the last hour.
C. Palpate the suprapubic area for bladder distention.
D. Encourage the client to ambulate immediately.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A distended bladder can displace the postpartum uterus and prevent effective uterine
contraction. Because the fundus cannot be adequately palpated and bleeding is
increased, the nurse should assess for bladder distention.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A: Oxytocin may eventually be required, but assessment for a correctable
cause should occur first.
Option B: Documentation is important but does not address the immediate cause of
excessive bleeding.
Option D: A client who recently received an epidural may not be safe to ambulate
independently.
Question 2. A client at 36 weeks’ gestation who is Rh-negative is admitted with
abdominal cramping. Two hours later, the nurse observes a large amount of
bright-red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A. Assess the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern.
B. Determine fetal position using Leopold maneuvers.
C. Perform a sterile vaginal examination.
D. Confirm Rh and Coombs status first.
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale:
Heavy third-trimester bleeding can compromise maternal-fetal circulation. Immediate
assessment of fetal status and uterine activity is the priority.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option B: Fetal position is not the immediate priority during significant bleeding.
Option C: Vaginal examination may be contraindicated when placental complications
are possible.
Option D: Rh status is important, but fetal status requires immediate evaluation.
Question 3. A 38-year-old primiparous client presents 2 weeks postpartum after a
spontaneous vaginal birth. Which findings from the source should the nurse use
to help determine the cause of the client’s symptoms? Select all that apply.
A. Rupture of membranes for 16 hours
B. Normal spontaneous vaginal birth
C. Breastfeeding 7 to 8 times daily
D. Discharge hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL
E. Current vital signs
F. Shopping for 5 hours the previous day
G. Foul-smelling lochia
Correct Answers: A, D, E, G
Rationale:
Option A – Correct: Prolonged rupture of membranes can increase postpartum
infection risk.
Option B – Incorrect: A normal spontaneous vaginal birth alone does not explain the
current symptoms.
Option C – Incorrect: The stated feeding pattern is not selected in this source question.
Option D – Correct: Low hemoglobin may contribute to fatigue and reduced
physiologic reserve.
Option E – Correct: Current vital signs can reveal fever, tachycardia, or hemodynamic
changes.
Option F – Incorrect per this source key: Although activity may contribute to fatigue,
it is not included among the keyed findings in this uploaded final-exam source.
FINAL EXAM
(Family Nursing)
Actual Questions w/Correct Answers
(NCLEX (NGN) style Questions)
Herzing University
What you Will Get:
• 100 verified questions
• Correct answers with Rationales.
• Ideal for exam preparation and concept reinforcement.
,Question 1. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine
fundus of a client who received epidural anesthesia and notes a large amount of
lochia on the perineal pad. The nurse massages at the umbilicus and obtains
current vital signs. Which intervention should the nurse implement next?
A. Increase the rate of the oxytocin infusion.
B. Document the number of pad changes during the last hour.
C. Palpate the suprapubic area for bladder distention.
D. Encourage the client to ambulate immediately.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A distended bladder can displace the postpartum uterus and prevent effective uterine
contraction. Because the fundus cannot be adequately palpated and bleeding is
increased, the nurse should assess for bladder distention.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A: Oxytocin may eventually be required, but assessment for a correctable
cause should occur first.
Option B: Documentation is important but does not address the immediate cause of
excessive bleeding.
Option D: A client who recently received an epidural may not be safe to ambulate
independently.
Question 2. A client at 36 weeks’ gestation who is Rh-negative is admitted with
abdominal cramping. Two hours later, the nurse observes a large amount of
bright-red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A. Assess the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern.
B. Determine fetal position using Leopold maneuvers.
C. Perform a sterile vaginal examination.
D. Confirm Rh and Coombs status first.
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale:
Heavy third-trimester bleeding can compromise maternal-fetal circulation. Immediate
assessment of fetal status and uterine activity is the priority.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option B: Fetal position is not the immediate priority during significant bleeding.
Option C: Vaginal examination may be contraindicated when placental complications
are possible.
Option D: Rh status is important, but fetal status requires immediate evaluation.
Question 3. A 38-year-old primiparous client presents 2 weeks postpartum after a
spontaneous vaginal birth. Which findings from the source should the nurse use
to help determine the cause of the client’s symptoms? Select all that apply.
A. Rupture of membranes for 16 hours
B. Normal spontaneous vaginal birth
C. Breastfeeding 7 to 8 times daily
D. Discharge hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL
E. Current vital signs
F. Shopping for 5 hours the previous day
G. Foul-smelling lochia
Correct Answers: A, D, E, G
Rationale:
Option A – Correct: Prolonged rupture of membranes can increase postpartum
infection risk.
Option B – Incorrect: A normal spontaneous vaginal birth alone does not explain the
current symptoms.
Option C – Incorrect: The stated feeding pattern is not selected in this source question.
Option D – Correct: Low hemoglobin may contribute to fatigue and reduced
physiologic reserve.
Option E – Correct: Current vital signs can reveal fever, tachycardia, or hemodynamic
changes.
Option F – Incorrect per this source key: Although activity may contribute to fatigue,
it is not included among the keyed findings in this uploaded final-exam source.
