APEA PRACTICE QUESTIONS Women's Health Exam
Questions and Answers are designed to help students prepare
for theupcoming APEA Predictor Exam by providing targeted
practice questions, detailed rationales
1. (Moderate Difficulty) Which of the Answer: B) BRCA1 &
BRCA2Explanation: Mutations in BRCA1 following genetic mutations is most strongly and BRCA2
increase the lifetime risk of breast cancer
associated with hereditary breast cancer? significantly. These genes function as tumor suppressors, and
A) HER2 their mutations lead to unchecked cell growth.
B) BRCA1 & BRCA2
C) TP53
D) PTEN
(High Difficulty) A 50-year-old woman B) Lymphatic obstruction
presents with a firm, immobile, non-tender Explanation: Peau d'orange occurs due to cancerous
invasion breast mass in the upper outer quadrant. of dermal lymphatics, causing edema and skin
thickening.
There is also peau d'orange skin dimpling.
What is the most likely underlying cause of
the skin changes?
A) Inflammatory response
B) Lymphatic obstruction
C) Increased vascular permeability
D) Hormonal stimulation
, (Moderate Difficulty) A postmenopausal C) Aromatase inhibitor
woman with ER/PR-positive breast cancer is Explanation: Anastrozole inhibits aromatase, reducing
started on anastrozole. What is the estrogen synthesis in postmenopausal women, which is
crucial mechanism of action of this drug? for ER/PR-positive breast cancer treatment.
A) Selective estrogen receptor modulator
B) Estrogen receptor antagonist
C) Aromatase inhibitor
D) HER2 receptor inhibitor
(High Difficulty) A patient with HER2- B) Cardiotoxicity
positive breast cancer is prescribed Explanation: Trastuzumab can cause cardiomyopathy, leading
trastuzumab (Herceptin). Which of the to reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF).
Baseline following adverse effects should be closely and follow-up echocardiograms are
recommended.
monitored?
A) Nephrotoxicity
B) Cardiotoxicity
C) Hepatotoxicity
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
A premenopausal woman with ER/PR- : B) Endometrial cancer
positive breast cancer is started on Explanation: Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor
tamoxifen. What is the most serious modulator (SERM) that acts as an antagonist in the breast but
potential adverse effect? an agonist in the endometrium, increasing the risk of
A) Osteoporosis endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.
B) Endometrial cancer
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Pulmonary embolism
During a clinical breast exam, a 45-year-old A) Order a diagnostic mammogram and
patient is found to have a newly detected, ultrasoundExplanation: Any new, persistent breast mass in a
firm, non-tender breast mass with irregular woman >40 years old should be evaluated with diagnostic
borders in the upper outer quadrant. What is imaging (mammogram ± ultrasound). If findings are suspicious,
the next best step in evaluating this mass? a biopsy is needed for definitive diagnosis.
A) Order a diagnostic mammogram and
ultrasound
B) Schedule a follow-up exam in 6 months
C) Start empirical antibiotic therapy
D) Reassure the patient and advise self-
monitoring
Questions and Answers are designed to help students prepare
for theupcoming APEA Predictor Exam by providing targeted
practice questions, detailed rationales
1. (Moderate Difficulty) Which of the Answer: B) BRCA1 &
BRCA2Explanation: Mutations in BRCA1 following genetic mutations is most strongly and BRCA2
increase the lifetime risk of breast cancer
associated with hereditary breast cancer? significantly. These genes function as tumor suppressors, and
A) HER2 their mutations lead to unchecked cell growth.
B) BRCA1 & BRCA2
C) TP53
D) PTEN
(High Difficulty) A 50-year-old woman B) Lymphatic obstruction
presents with a firm, immobile, non-tender Explanation: Peau d'orange occurs due to cancerous
invasion breast mass in the upper outer quadrant. of dermal lymphatics, causing edema and skin
thickening.
There is also peau d'orange skin dimpling.
What is the most likely underlying cause of
the skin changes?
A) Inflammatory response
B) Lymphatic obstruction
C) Increased vascular permeability
D) Hormonal stimulation
, (Moderate Difficulty) A postmenopausal C) Aromatase inhibitor
woman with ER/PR-positive breast cancer is Explanation: Anastrozole inhibits aromatase, reducing
started on anastrozole. What is the estrogen synthesis in postmenopausal women, which is
crucial mechanism of action of this drug? for ER/PR-positive breast cancer treatment.
A) Selective estrogen receptor modulator
B) Estrogen receptor antagonist
C) Aromatase inhibitor
D) HER2 receptor inhibitor
(High Difficulty) A patient with HER2- B) Cardiotoxicity
positive breast cancer is prescribed Explanation: Trastuzumab can cause cardiomyopathy, leading
trastuzumab (Herceptin). Which of the to reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF).
Baseline following adverse effects should be closely and follow-up echocardiograms are
recommended.
monitored?
A) Nephrotoxicity
B) Cardiotoxicity
C) Hepatotoxicity
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
A premenopausal woman with ER/PR- : B) Endometrial cancer
positive breast cancer is started on Explanation: Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor
tamoxifen. What is the most serious modulator (SERM) that acts as an antagonist in the breast but
potential adverse effect? an agonist in the endometrium, increasing the risk of
A) Osteoporosis endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.
B) Endometrial cancer
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Pulmonary embolism
During a clinical breast exam, a 45-year-old A) Order a diagnostic mammogram and
patient is found to have a newly detected, ultrasoundExplanation: Any new, persistent breast mass in a
firm, non-tender breast mass with irregular woman >40 years old should be evaluated with diagnostic
borders in the upper outer quadrant. What is imaging (mammogram ± ultrasound). If findings are suspicious,
the next best step in evaluating this mass? a biopsy is needed for definitive diagnosis.
A) Order a diagnostic mammogram and
ultrasound
B) Schedule a follow-up exam in 6 months
C) Start empirical antibiotic therapy
D) Reassure the patient and advise self-
monitoring
