,NSG 430 Final Exam Adult Health Nursing II Questions And Answers
2026/2027 Grand canyon university
Q1. Which outcome is the primary goal of palliative care for a client
with a life-altering illness?
A) Eliminate all disease-related symptoms permanently
B) Discontinue all medical treatment
C) Promote comfort, quality of life, and support for the client and family
D) Prolong life regardless of the client's wishes
Correct Answer: C) Promote comfort, quality of life, and support for the client
and family
Rationale: Palliative care focuses on symptom relief, quality of life,
psychosocial and spiritual support, and care that reflects the client's goals
and preferences.
Q2. Which task is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to an
experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A) Obtain routine vital signs on a stable client
B) Assess a client with new chest pain
C) Teach a client how to use an incentive spirometer
D) Evaluate the effectiveness of an analgesic
Correct Answer: A) Obtain routine vital signs on a stable client
Rationale: UAP may perform routine, predictable tasks for stable clients.
Assessment, teaching, and evaluation remain nursing responsibilities.
Q3. A client with suspected opioid overdose has a respiratory rate of
6/min and is difficult to arouse. Which action should the nurse
prioritize?
A) Encourage oral fluids
B) Administer naloxone as prescribed and support ventilation
C) Place the client in Trendelenburg position
D) Delay treatment until laboratory results are available
Correct Answer: B) Administer naloxone as prescribed and support ventilation
Rationale: Opioid toxicity can cause life-threatening respiratory depression.
Naloxone reverses opioid effects while airway and ventilatory support are
maintained.
,Q4. Which finding is commonly associated with the active dying
process?
A) Sustained increase in appetite
B) Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C) Increased urine output
D) Improved peripheral perfusion
Correct Answer: B) Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations, characterized by cycles of
increasingly deep breathing followed by apnea, can occur as death
approaches.
Q5. Which client most clearly requires rapid-response evaluation?
A) A stable client requesting a blanket
B) A client with chronic mild edema
C) A client with new confusion, severe respiratory distress, and falling oxygen
saturation
D) A client reporting mild postoperative discomfort
Correct Answer: C) A client with new confusion, severe respiratory distress,
and falling oxygen saturation
Rationale: Acute respiratory compromise with neurologic deterioration is a
life-threatening change requiring immediate intervention.
CHAPTER 2 — MANAGEMENT OF ACUTE ENDOCRINE DISORDERS
Q6. Which finding most strongly supports diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) Severe hypoglycemia with respiratory alkalosis
B) Hyperglycemia, ketone production, and metabolic acidosis
C) Isolated hypernatremia without hyperglycemia
D) Water retention with concentrated urine
Correct Answer: B) Hyperglycemia, ketone production, and metabolic
acidosis
Rationale: DKA results from significant insulin deficiency, causing
hyperglycemia, lipolysis, ketone formation, dehydration, and metabolic
acidosis.
Q7. Which characteristic distinguishes hyperglycemic hyperosmolar
syndrome from diabetic ketoacidosis?
, A) HHS generally has little or no significant ketoacidosis.
B) HHS occurs only in clients with type 1 diabetes.
C) HHS always produces severe hypoglycemia.
D) HHS causes profound water retention.
Correct Answer: A) HHS generally has little or no significant ketoacidosis.
Rationale: HHS is marked by extreme hyperglycemia and hyperosmolality
with severe dehydration and minimal or absent significant ketosis.
Q8. Which finding is most concerning for thyroid storm?
A) Bradycardia and hypothermia
B) Severe tachycardia, hyperthermia, and altered mental status
C) Low urine output with hyperkalemia
D) Weight gain and cold intolerance
Correct Answer: B) Severe tachycardia, hyperthermia, and altered mental
status
Rationale: Thyroid storm is a life-threatening state of excessive thyroid
activity that can cause severe cardiovascular, neurologic, and metabolic
instability.
Q9. Which finding is most consistent with hypothyroidism?
A) Weight loss with heat intolerance
B) Tremors with severe tachycardia
C) Weight gain, fatigue, dry skin, and cold intolerance
D) Persistent polyuria with hypernatremia
Correct Answer: C) Weight gain, fatigue, dry skin, and cold intolerance
Rationale: Reduced thyroid hormone activity slows metabolism and
commonly produces fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, dry skin, and
constipation.
Q10. A client with primary adrenal insufficiency develops profound
hypotension, weakness, and hyperkalemia. Which condition should
the nurse suspect?
A) SIADH
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Addisonian crisis
D) Thyroid storm
2026/2027 Grand canyon university
Q1. Which outcome is the primary goal of palliative care for a client
with a life-altering illness?
A) Eliminate all disease-related symptoms permanently
B) Discontinue all medical treatment
C) Promote comfort, quality of life, and support for the client and family
D) Prolong life regardless of the client's wishes
Correct Answer: C) Promote comfort, quality of life, and support for the client
and family
Rationale: Palliative care focuses on symptom relief, quality of life,
psychosocial and spiritual support, and care that reflects the client's goals
and preferences.
Q2. Which task is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to an
experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A) Obtain routine vital signs on a stable client
B) Assess a client with new chest pain
C) Teach a client how to use an incentive spirometer
D) Evaluate the effectiveness of an analgesic
Correct Answer: A) Obtain routine vital signs on a stable client
Rationale: UAP may perform routine, predictable tasks for stable clients.
Assessment, teaching, and evaluation remain nursing responsibilities.
Q3. A client with suspected opioid overdose has a respiratory rate of
6/min and is difficult to arouse. Which action should the nurse
prioritize?
A) Encourage oral fluids
B) Administer naloxone as prescribed and support ventilation
C) Place the client in Trendelenburg position
D) Delay treatment until laboratory results are available
Correct Answer: B) Administer naloxone as prescribed and support ventilation
Rationale: Opioid toxicity can cause life-threatening respiratory depression.
Naloxone reverses opioid effects while airway and ventilatory support are
maintained.
,Q4. Which finding is commonly associated with the active dying
process?
A) Sustained increase in appetite
B) Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C) Increased urine output
D) Improved peripheral perfusion
Correct Answer: B) Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations, characterized by cycles of
increasingly deep breathing followed by apnea, can occur as death
approaches.
Q5. Which client most clearly requires rapid-response evaluation?
A) A stable client requesting a blanket
B) A client with chronic mild edema
C) A client with new confusion, severe respiratory distress, and falling oxygen
saturation
D) A client reporting mild postoperative discomfort
Correct Answer: C) A client with new confusion, severe respiratory distress,
and falling oxygen saturation
Rationale: Acute respiratory compromise with neurologic deterioration is a
life-threatening change requiring immediate intervention.
CHAPTER 2 — MANAGEMENT OF ACUTE ENDOCRINE DISORDERS
Q6. Which finding most strongly supports diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) Severe hypoglycemia with respiratory alkalosis
B) Hyperglycemia, ketone production, and metabolic acidosis
C) Isolated hypernatremia without hyperglycemia
D) Water retention with concentrated urine
Correct Answer: B) Hyperglycemia, ketone production, and metabolic
acidosis
Rationale: DKA results from significant insulin deficiency, causing
hyperglycemia, lipolysis, ketone formation, dehydration, and metabolic
acidosis.
Q7. Which characteristic distinguishes hyperglycemic hyperosmolar
syndrome from diabetic ketoacidosis?
, A) HHS generally has little or no significant ketoacidosis.
B) HHS occurs only in clients with type 1 diabetes.
C) HHS always produces severe hypoglycemia.
D) HHS causes profound water retention.
Correct Answer: A) HHS generally has little or no significant ketoacidosis.
Rationale: HHS is marked by extreme hyperglycemia and hyperosmolality
with severe dehydration and minimal or absent significant ketosis.
Q8. Which finding is most concerning for thyroid storm?
A) Bradycardia and hypothermia
B) Severe tachycardia, hyperthermia, and altered mental status
C) Low urine output with hyperkalemia
D) Weight gain and cold intolerance
Correct Answer: B) Severe tachycardia, hyperthermia, and altered mental
status
Rationale: Thyroid storm is a life-threatening state of excessive thyroid
activity that can cause severe cardiovascular, neurologic, and metabolic
instability.
Q9. Which finding is most consistent with hypothyroidism?
A) Weight loss with heat intolerance
B) Tremors with severe tachycardia
C) Weight gain, fatigue, dry skin, and cold intolerance
D) Persistent polyuria with hypernatremia
Correct Answer: C) Weight gain, fatigue, dry skin, and cold intolerance
Rationale: Reduced thyroid hormone activity slows metabolism and
commonly produces fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, dry skin, and
constipation.
Q10. A client with primary adrenal insufficiency develops profound
hypotension, weakness, and hyperkalemia. Which condition should
the nurse suspect?
A) SIADH
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Addisonian crisis
D) Thyroid storm
