,NSG 430 Exam 4 Adult Health Nursing II Questions And Answers
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Q1. Which finding is most consistent with shock?
A) Inadequate tissue perfusion with impaired cellular metabolism
B) Increased tissue oxygen delivery with normal metabolism
C) Increased renal perfusion with improved urine output
D) Normal oxygen delivery despite persistent hypotension
Correct Answer: A) Inadequate tissue perfusion with impaired cellular
metabolism
Rationale: Shock occurs when tissue perfusion is insufficient to meet
cellular oxygen and metabolic demands, leading to cellular dysfunction and
potentially organ failure.
Q2. A client experiencing hypovolemic shock has severe
hypotension and tachycardia. Which intervention is the priority?
A) Restrict intravenous fluids.
B) Restore circulating volume while controlling the source of fluid loss.
C) Encourage oral fluids only.
D) Administer a diuretic.
Correct Answer: B) Restore circulating volume while controlling the source of
fluid loss.
Rationale: Hypovolemic shock results from inadequate circulating volume.
Treatment focuses on stopping the loss and restoring intravascular volume to
improve perfusion.
Q3. Which condition is a common cause of hypovolemic shock?
A) Massive hemorrhage
B) Left ventricular hypertrophy without symptoms
C) Mild hypertension
D) Stable atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: A) Massive hemorrhage
Rationale: Hemorrhage causes loss of intravascular volume and can rapidly
reduce venous return, cardiac output, and tissue perfusion.
Q4. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of cardiogenic
shock?
,A) Warm flushed skin with bounding pulses
B) Increased cardiac output and urine production
C) Hypotension with cool clammy skin and pulmonary congestion
D) Severe hypertension with bradycardia
Correct Answer: C) Hypotension with cool clammy skin and pulmonary
congestion
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock results from inadequate cardiac pumping
ability and commonly produces hypotension, poor peripheral perfusion, and
pulmonary congestion.
Q5. A client develops shock after a large myocardial infarction.
Which type of shock should the nurse suspect?
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
Correct Answer: A) Cardiogenic shock
Rationale: Extensive myocardial injury can markedly reduce the heart's
ability to pump blood, resulting in cardiogenic shock.
Q6. Which finding distinguishes neurogenic shock from hypovolemic
shock?
A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia with hypotension
C) Cool clammy skin
D) Decreased circulating volume
Correct Answer: B) Bradycardia with hypotension
Rationale: Loss of sympathetic tone in neurogenic shock can cause
vasodilation, hypotension, and relative bradycardia rather than the
tachycardia commonly seen in hypovolemia.
Q7. A client develops hypotension and bradycardia immediately
after a high spinal cord injury. Which mechanism best explains the
findings?
A) Massive blood loss
B) Loss of sympathetic vascular tone
, C) Increased circulating volume
D) Excessive catecholamine release
Correct Answer: B) Loss of sympathetic vascular tone
Rationale: High spinal cord injury can disrupt sympathetic pathways,
producing vasodilation, venous pooling, hypotension, and bradycardia.
Q8. Which finding is most suggestive of anaphylactic shock?
A) Wheezing, angioedema, hypotension, and urticaria
B) Bradycardia with dry skin after spinal injury
C) Crackles and elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure after MI
D) Severe blood loss after trauma
Correct Answer: A) Wheezing, angioedema, hypotension, and urticaria
Rationale: Anaphylaxis causes widespread vasodilation, increased capillary
permeability, airway edema, and bronchoconstriction.
Q9. What is the priority medication for severe anaphylaxis?
A) Furosemide
B) Epinephrine
C) Warfarin
D) Ferrous sulfate
Correct Answer: B) Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine rapidly reverses airway edema, bronchoconstriction,
and vasodilation and is the first-line emergency treatment for anaphylaxis.
Q10. Which type of shock can occur when blood pools because of
profound vasodilation rather than actual blood loss?
A) Neurogenic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Obstructive shock
D) Hypovolemic shock
Correct Answer: A) Neurogenic shock
Rationale: Neurogenic shock causes loss of vascular tone and pooling of
blood, producing relative hypovolemia without primary loss of blood volume.
Q11. Which condition is an example of obstructive shock?
2026/2027 Grand canyon university
Q1. Which finding is most consistent with shock?
A) Inadequate tissue perfusion with impaired cellular metabolism
B) Increased tissue oxygen delivery with normal metabolism
C) Increased renal perfusion with improved urine output
D) Normal oxygen delivery despite persistent hypotension
Correct Answer: A) Inadequate tissue perfusion with impaired cellular
metabolism
Rationale: Shock occurs when tissue perfusion is insufficient to meet
cellular oxygen and metabolic demands, leading to cellular dysfunction and
potentially organ failure.
Q2. A client experiencing hypovolemic shock has severe
hypotension and tachycardia. Which intervention is the priority?
A) Restrict intravenous fluids.
B) Restore circulating volume while controlling the source of fluid loss.
C) Encourage oral fluids only.
D) Administer a diuretic.
Correct Answer: B) Restore circulating volume while controlling the source of
fluid loss.
Rationale: Hypovolemic shock results from inadequate circulating volume.
Treatment focuses on stopping the loss and restoring intravascular volume to
improve perfusion.
Q3. Which condition is a common cause of hypovolemic shock?
A) Massive hemorrhage
B) Left ventricular hypertrophy without symptoms
C) Mild hypertension
D) Stable atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: A) Massive hemorrhage
Rationale: Hemorrhage causes loss of intravascular volume and can rapidly
reduce venous return, cardiac output, and tissue perfusion.
Q4. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of cardiogenic
shock?
,A) Warm flushed skin with bounding pulses
B) Increased cardiac output and urine production
C) Hypotension with cool clammy skin and pulmonary congestion
D) Severe hypertension with bradycardia
Correct Answer: C) Hypotension with cool clammy skin and pulmonary
congestion
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock results from inadequate cardiac pumping
ability and commonly produces hypotension, poor peripheral perfusion, and
pulmonary congestion.
Q5. A client develops shock after a large myocardial infarction.
Which type of shock should the nurse suspect?
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
Correct Answer: A) Cardiogenic shock
Rationale: Extensive myocardial injury can markedly reduce the heart's
ability to pump blood, resulting in cardiogenic shock.
Q6. Which finding distinguishes neurogenic shock from hypovolemic
shock?
A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia with hypotension
C) Cool clammy skin
D) Decreased circulating volume
Correct Answer: B) Bradycardia with hypotension
Rationale: Loss of sympathetic tone in neurogenic shock can cause
vasodilation, hypotension, and relative bradycardia rather than the
tachycardia commonly seen in hypovolemia.
Q7. A client develops hypotension and bradycardia immediately
after a high spinal cord injury. Which mechanism best explains the
findings?
A) Massive blood loss
B) Loss of sympathetic vascular tone
, C) Increased circulating volume
D) Excessive catecholamine release
Correct Answer: B) Loss of sympathetic vascular tone
Rationale: High spinal cord injury can disrupt sympathetic pathways,
producing vasodilation, venous pooling, hypotension, and bradycardia.
Q8. Which finding is most suggestive of anaphylactic shock?
A) Wheezing, angioedema, hypotension, and urticaria
B) Bradycardia with dry skin after spinal injury
C) Crackles and elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure after MI
D) Severe blood loss after trauma
Correct Answer: A) Wheezing, angioedema, hypotension, and urticaria
Rationale: Anaphylaxis causes widespread vasodilation, increased capillary
permeability, airway edema, and bronchoconstriction.
Q9. What is the priority medication for severe anaphylaxis?
A) Furosemide
B) Epinephrine
C) Warfarin
D) Ferrous sulfate
Correct Answer: B) Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine rapidly reverses airway edema, bronchoconstriction,
and vasodilation and is the first-line emergency treatment for anaphylaxis.
Q10. Which type of shock can occur when blood pools because of
profound vasodilation rather than actual blood loss?
A) Neurogenic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Obstructive shock
D) Hypovolemic shock
Correct Answer: A) Neurogenic shock
Rationale: Neurogenic shock causes loss of vascular tone and pooling of
blood, producing relative hypovolemia without primary loss of blood volume.
Q11. Which condition is an example of obstructive shock?
