NUR 2502 MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE III –
EXAM 1 COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION
BANK: 100 VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWER RATIONALES
(ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027) || NEWEST!!
SECTION 1: WOMEN'S HEALTH AND BREAST CANCER
(Questions 1-12)
Question 1
A 52-year-old female client presents with a firm, immobile mass in the upper outer
quadrant of her left breast. She reports dimpling of the skin over the mass. Which
assessment finding is most concerning for breast cancer?
A) Firm mass in the upper outer quadrant
B) Skin dimpling over the mass
C) The client's age of 52
D) Pain associated with the mass
Correct Answer: B) Skin dimpling over the mass
Rationale: Skin dimpling, often described as "peau d'orange" (orange peel
appearance), is a classic sign of inflammatory breast cancer and indicates
involvement of the suspensory ligaments (Cooper's ligaments) or lymphatic
obstruction. While a firm, immobile mass in the upper outer quadrant is concerning
(this is the most common location for breast tumors), the presence of skin changes is
a more ominous sign suggesting advanced disease. Pain is not typically an early sign
of breast cancer; breast cancer is often painless initially. Age 52 is within the typical
age range for breast cancer diagnosis but is not the most concerning finding .
,Question 2
A 45-year-old female client with a family history of breast cancer is considering
genetic testing. Which finding would most strongly suggest the presence of a BRCA1
or BRCA2 gene mutation?
A) Maternal grandmother diagnosed with breast cancer at age 72
B) Maternal aunt diagnosed with ovarian cancer at age 60
C) The client's sister diagnosed with breast cancer at age 35
D) The client's father diagnosed with prostate cancer at age 70
Correct Answer: C) The client's sister diagnosed with breast cancer at age 35
Rationale: BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are associated with significantly increased
risks of breast and ovarian cancers. Key indicators for genetic testing include:
• Breast cancer diagnosed before age 50
• Bilateral breast cancer
• Breast and ovarian cancers in the same individual or family
• Male breast cancer
• Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry
• Multiple family members with breast or ovarian cancer
A sister diagnosed with breast cancer at age 35 (younger than 50) is a strong
indicator of a possible BRCA mutation. Ovarian cancer at age 60 in an aunt is
concerning but less significant than early-onset breast cancer in a first-degree
relative. Prostate cancer at age 70 is not a strong BRCA indicator .
Question 3
A nurse is performing a breast examination on a client. Which finding requires
immediate follow-up?
A) Nipple inversion that has been present since adolescence
B) Bloody nipple discharge
,C) Bilateral breast tenderness
D) Cyclical breast fullness
Correct Answer: B) Bloody nipple discharge
Rationale: Bloody or serosanguinous nipple discharge is an abnormal finding that
may indicate intraductal papilloma, ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS), or invasive breast
cancer. This finding requires immediate diagnostic evaluation with imaging and
possibly biopsy. Nipple inversion that has been present since adolescence is typically
a benign congenital variant. Bilateral breast tenderness and cyclical breast fullness
are common benign findings associated with hormonal fluctuations, particularly
during the menstrual cycle .
Question 4
A female client with ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) asks the nurse, "Is this cancer? I
thought cancer was always invasive." Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "DCIS is considered a pre-cancerous condition, not breast cancer."
B) "DCIS is stage 0 breast cancer. It is non-invasive but requires treatment."
C) "Your cancer has already spread to the lymph nodes."
D) "You will need to have a mastectomy immediately."
Correct Answer: B) "DCIS is stage 0 breast cancer. It is non-invasive but requires
treatment."
Rationale: Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is stage 0 breast cancer characterized by
abnormal cells confined within the milk ducts of the breast. It is considered non-
invasive because the cells have not penetrated the duct walls to invade surrounding
breast tissue. However, DCIS is indeed cancer and requires treatment because it can
progress to invasive cancer. Treatment options include lumpectomy with radiation,
mastectomy, or hormonal therapy. It is not accurate to call it "pre-cancerous" or to
state that it has already spread to lymph nodes .
, Question 5
A client with newly diagnosed breast cancer is concerned about body image and
sexuality. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A) Avoid discussing the topic unless the client initiates it
B) Provide reassurance that body image changes are temporary
C) Encourage the client to express her concerns and offer support resources
D) Tell the client that sexuality is not a priority during cancer treatment
Correct Answer: C) Encourage the client to express her concerns and offer support
resources
Rationale: Body image and sexuality are significant concerns for clients undergoing
breast cancer treatment. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to provide a
supportive environment for the client to express her concerns, validate her feelings,
and connect her with appropriate support resources such as support groups,
counseling, or advocacy organizations. Avoiding the topic or dismissing the client's
concerns is not therapeutic. Reassuring the client that changes are "temporary" may
be misleading, as some changes such as scarring from surgery may be permanent .
Question 6
A client is prescribed tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment. Which side effect should
the nurse teach the client to report immediately?
A) Hot flashes
B) Vaginal dryness
C) Leg pain or swelling
D) Nausea
Correct Answer: C) Leg pain or swelling
EXAM 1 COMPREHENSIVE QUESTION
BANK: 100 VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWER RATIONALES
(ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027) || NEWEST!!
SECTION 1: WOMEN'S HEALTH AND BREAST CANCER
(Questions 1-12)
Question 1
A 52-year-old female client presents with a firm, immobile mass in the upper outer
quadrant of her left breast. She reports dimpling of the skin over the mass. Which
assessment finding is most concerning for breast cancer?
A) Firm mass in the upper outer quadrant
B) Skin dimpling over the mass
C) The client's age of 52
D) Pain associated with the mass
Correct Answer: B) Skin dimpling over the mass
Rationale: Skin dimpling, often described as "peau d'orange" (orange peel
appearance), is a classic sign of inflammatory breast cancer and indicates
involvement of the suspensory ligaments (Cooper's ligaments) or lymphatic
obstruction. While a firm, immobile mass in the upper outer quadrant is concerning
(this is the most common location for breast tumors), the presence of skin changes is
a more ominous sign suggesting advanced disease. Pain is not typically an early sign
of breast cancer; breast cancer is often painless initially. Age 52 is within the typical
age range for breast cancer diagnosis but is not the most concerning finding .
,Question 2
A 45-year-old female client with a family history of breast cancer is considering
genetic testing. Which finding would most strongly suggest the presence of a BRCA1
or BRCA2 gene mutation?
A) Maternal grandmother diagnosed with breast cancer at age 72
B) Maternal aunt diagnosed with ovarian cancer at age 60
C) The client's sister diagnosed with breast cancer at age 35
D) The client's father diagnosed with prostate cancer at age 70
Correct Answer: C) The client's sister diagnosed with breast cancer at age 35
Rationale: BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are associated with significantly increased
risks of breast and ovarian cancers. Key indicators for genetic testing include:
• Breast cancer diagnosed before age 50
• Bilateral breast cancer
• Breast and ovarian cancers in the same individual or family
• Male breast cancer
• Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry
• Multiple family members with breast or ovarian cancer
A sister diagnosed with breast cancer at age 35 (younger than 50) is a strong
indicator of a possible BRCA mutation. Ovarian cancer at age 60 in an aunt is
concerning but less significant than early-onset breast cancer in a first-degree
relative. Prostate cancer at age 70 is not a strong BRCA indicator .
Question 3
A nurse is performing a breast examination on a client. Which finding requires
immediate follow-up?
A) Nipple inversion that has been present since adolescence
B) Bloody nipple discharge
,C) Bilateral breast tenderness
D) Cyclical breast fullness
Correct Answer: B) Bloody nipple discharge
Rationale: Bloody or serosanguinous nipple discharge is an abnormal finding that
may indicate intraductal papilloma, ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS), or invasive breast
cancer. This finding requires immediate diagnostic evaluation with imaging and
possibly biopsy. Nipple inversion that has been present since adolescence is typically
a benign congenital variant. Bilateral breast tenderness and cyclical breast fullness
are common benign findings associated with hormonal fluctuations, particularly
during the menstrual cycle .
Question 4
A female client with ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) asks the nurse, "Is this cancer? I
thought cancer was always invasive." Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "DCIS is considered a pre-cancerous condition, not breast cancer."
B) "DCIS is stage 0 breast cancer. It is non-invasive but requires treatment."
C) "Your cancer has already spread to the lymph nodes."
D) "You will need to have a mastectomy immediately."
Correct Answer: B) "DCIS is stage 0 breast cancer. It is non-invasive but requires
treatment."
Rationale: Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is stage 0 breast cancer characterized by
abnormal cells confined within the milk ducts of the breast. It is considered non-
invasive because the cells have not penetrated the duct walls to invade surrounding
breast tissue. However, DCIS is indeed cancer and requires treatment because it can
progress to invasive cancer. Treatment options include lumpectomy with radiation,
mastectomy, or hormonal therapy. It is not accurate to call it "pre-cancerous" or to
state that it has already spread to lymph nodes .
, Question 5
A client with newly diagnosed breast cancer is concerned about body image and
sexuality. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A) Avoid discussing the topic unless the client initiates it
B) Provide reassurance that body image changes are temporary
C) Encourage the client to express her concerns and offer support resources
D) Tell the client that sexuality is not a priority during cancer treatment
Correct Answer: C) Encourage the client to express her concerns and offer support
resources
Rationale: Body image and sexuality are significant concerns for clients undergoing
breast cancer treatment. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to provide a
supportive environment for the client to express her concerns, validate her feelings,
and connect her with appropriate support resources such as support groups,
counseling, or advocacy organizations. Avoiding the topic or dismissing the client's
concerns is not therapeutic. Reassuring the client that changes are "temporary" may
be misleading, as some changes such as scarring from surgery may be permanent .
Question 6
A client is prescribed tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment. Which side effect should
the nurse teach the client to report immediately?
A) Hot flashes
B) Vaginal dryness
C) Leg pain or swelling
D) Nausea
Correct Answer: C) Leg pain or swelling
