CHAMBERLAIN MASTERY EXIT EXAM
NEWEST 2026/ 2027 ACTUAL EXAM |
CHAMBERLAIN MASTERY EXIT EXAM
REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 200+REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED
A+| (MOST RECENT!!)
SECTION 1: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING (Questions 1-60)
1. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has a blood gas
pH of 7.30, PaCO2 of 58 mmHg, and HCO3 of 30 mEq/L. The nurse interprets this
as:
A. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
C. Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
D. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis). The PaCO2 is high (respiratory cause). The HCO3 is
high (metabolic compensation), but the pH is still abnormal, indicating it
is partially compensated.
2. A patient is prescribed isosorbide dinitrate for angina. Which side effect is most
important for the nurse to teach the patient about?
A. Hypertension
B. Headache
C. Tachycardia
D. Dry cough
,Answer: B
Rationale: Headache is a common and expected side effect of nitrates due to
vasodilation of cerebral vessels. Patients should be told that it often diminishes with
continued use and should not stop the medication. Dry cough is associated with ACE
inhibitors.
3. A patient with cirrhosis has an elevated ammonia level. Which laxative does the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
B. Docusate sodium (Colace)
C. Lactulose
D. Polyethylene glycol (Miralax)
Answer: C
Rationale: Lactulose is given to reduce serum ammonia levels in hepatic
encephalopathy. It acidifies the stool, converting ammonia to ammonium, which is not
absorbed and is excreted.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient with a new permanent pacemaker. Which
assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. The patient's heart rate is 72 bpm.
B. The patient reports incisional pain rated 4/10.
C. The patient's SpO2 is 88% on room air.
D. The patient has a small amount of ecchymosis at the site.
Answer: C
Rationale: An SpO2 of 88% indicates poor oxygenation and could be a sign of a
pneumothorax, a complication of pacemaker insertion. This is a respiratory emergency.
Incisional pain and ecchymosis are expected.
5. A patient is on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which dietary instruction is
correct?
A. "Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables."
B. "Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods."
,C. "Avoid all foods containing vitamin K."
D. "Take the medication with milk."
Answer: B
Rationale: The key to warfarin therapy is consistency. Patients should not drastically
change their intake of vitamin K (found in leafy greens). A sudden increase can lower the
INR, and a sudden decrease can raise it.
6. The nurse is assessing a patient with pericarditis. Which finding is most
characteristic?
A. Pain relieved by leaning forward.
B. Pain worsened by leaning forward.
C. Pain relieved by lying flat.
D. Pain radiating to the right arm.
Answer: A
Rationale: Pericarditis pain is pleuritic and positional. It is typically relieved by sitting
upright and leaning forward (which takes pressure off the pericardial sac) and worsened
by lying flat (supine).
7. A patient with a history of GERD reports heartburn after meals. Which lifestyle
modification should the nurse suggest?
A. Lie down for 30 minutes after eating.
B. Eat three large meals daily.
C. Avoid eating 2-3 hours before bedtime.
D. Increase intake of spicy foods.
Answer: C
Rationale: Patients with GERD should avoid lying down for at least 2-3 hours after
meals to prevent reflux. Small, frequent meals are recommended, and spicy foods
should be avoided.
8. The nurse is providing education for a patient with a new colostomy. Which
food should the patient avoid to prevent gas and odor?
A. Applesauce
, B. Pasta
C. Eggs
D. Broccoli
Answer: D
Rationale: Gas-forming foods (broccoli, cabbage, beans, onions) should be avoided to
reduce flatus and odor. Applesauce, pasta, and eggs are generally well-tolerated and
help thicken stool.
9. A patient is admitted with a pulmonary embolism. The provider orders a
heparin drip. The nurse knows the primary purpose of this therapy is to:
A. Dissolve the existing clot.
B. Prevent further clot formation.
C. Vasodilate the pulmonary arteries.
D. Increase cardiac output.
Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin does not dissolve existing clots (thrombolytics do that). It prevents
the extension of the current clot and the formation of new clots, allowing the body's
fibrinolytic system to break down the existing clot over time.
10. A patient with a stroke has dysphagia. Before feeding the patient, the nurse
should place the patient in which position?
A. Supine with head flat.
B. High-Fowler's with head flexed slightly forward.
C. Left lateral position.
D. Trendelenburg position.
Answer: B
Rationale: The patient should be seated in high-Fowler's (sitting upright) with the head
flexed slightly forward to protect the airway and facilitate swallowing. This position uses
gravity to assist swallowing.
11. A patient is taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which statement
indicates the patient understands the medication?
NEWEST 2026/ 2027 ACTUAL EXAM |
CHAMBERLAIN MASTERY EXIT EXAM
REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 200+REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED
A+| (MOST RECENT!!)
SECTION 1: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING (Questions 1-60)
1. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has a blood gas
pH of 7.30, PaCO2 of 58 mmHg, and HCO3 of 30 mEq/L. The nurse interprets this
as:
A. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
C. Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
D. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis). The PaCO2 is high (respiratory cause). The HCO3 is
high (metabolic compensation), but the pH is still abnormal, indicating it
is partially compensated.
2. A patient is prescribed isosorbide dinitrate for angina. Which side effect is most
important for the nurse to teach the patient about?
A. Hypertension
B. Headache
C. Tachycardia
D. Dry cough
,Answer: B
Rationale: Headache is a common and expected side effect of nitrates due to
vasodilation of cerebral vessels. Patients should be told that it often diminishes with
continued use and should not stop the medication. Dry cough is associated with ACE
inhibitors.
3. A patient with cirrhosis has an elevated ammonia level. Which laxative does the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
B. Docusate sodium (Colace)
C. Lactulose
D. Polyethylene glycol (Miralax)
Answer: C
Rationale: Lactulose is given to reduce serum ammonia levels in hepatic
encephalopathy. It acidifies the stool, converting ammonia to ammonium, which is not
absorbed and is excreted.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient with a new permanent pacemaker. Which
assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. The patient's heart rate is 72 bpm.
B. The patient reports incisional pain rated 4/10.
C. The patient's SpO2 is 88% on room air.
D. The patient has a small amount of ecchymosis at the site.
Answer: C
Rationale: An SpO2 of 88% indicates poor oxygenation and could be a sign of a
pneumothorax, a complication of pacemaker insertion. This is a respiratory emergency.
Incisional pain and ecchymosis are expected.
5. A patient is on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which dietary instruction is
correct?
A. "Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables."
B. "Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods."
,C. "Avoid all foods containing vitamin K."
D. "Take the medication with milk."
Answer: B
Rationale: The key to warfarin therapy is consistency. Patients should not drastically
change their intake of vitamin K (found in leafy greens). A sudden increase can lower the
INR, and a sudden decrease can raise it.
6. The nurse is assessing a patient with pericarditis. Which finding is most
characteristic?
A. Pain relieved by leaning forward.
B. Pain worsened by leaning forward.
C. Pain relieved by lying flat.
D. Pain radiating to the right arm.
Answer: A
Rationale: Pericarditis pain is pleuritic and positional. It is typically relieved by sitting
upright and leaning forward (which takes pressure off the pericardial sac) and worsened
by lying flat (supine).
7. A patient with a history of GERD reports heartburn after meals. Which lifestyle
modification should the nurse suggest?
A. Lie down for 30 minutes after eating.
B. Eat three large meals daily.
C. Avoid eating 2-3 hours before bedtime.
D. Increase intake of spicy foods.
Answer: C
Rationale: Patients with GERD should avoid lying down for at least 2-3 hours after
meals to prevent reflux. Small, frequent meals are recommended, and spicy foods
should be avoided.
8. The nurse is providing education for a patient with a new colostomy. Which
food should the patient avoid to prevent gas and odor?
A. Applesauce
, B. Pasta
C. Eggs
D. Broccoli
Answer: D
Rationale: Gas-forming foods (broccoli, cabbage, beans, onions) should be avoided to
reduce flatus and odor. Applesauce, pasta, and eggs are generally well-tolerated and
help thicken stool.
9. A patient is admitted with a pulmonary embolism. The provider orders a
heparin drip. The nurse knows the primary purpose of this therapy is to:
A. Dissolve the existing clot.
B. Prevent further clot formation.
C. Vasodilate the pulmonary arteries.
D. Increase cardiac output.
Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin does not dissolve existing clots (thrombolytics do that). It prevents
the extension of the current clot and the formation of new clots, allowing the body's
fibrinolytic system to break down the existing clot over time.
10. A patient with a stroke has dysphagia. Before feeding the patient, the nurse
should place the patient in which position?
A. Supine with head flat.
B. High-Fowler's with head flexed slightly forward.
C. Left lateral position.
D. Trendelenburg position.
Answer: B
Rationale: The patient should be seated in high-Fowler's (sitting upright) with the head
flexed slightly forward to protect the airway and facilitate swallowing. This position uses
gravity to assist swallowing.
11. A patient is taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which statement
indicates the patient understands the medication?
