BLS TEST (AHA) – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A healthcare professional approaches an adult who has suddenly collapsed. The person
does not respond to verbal stimulation. What is the most appropriate immediate
assessment?
A. Check the blood pressure
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. Assess breathing and determine whether cardiac arrest is present
D. Administer oxygen before further assessment
Rationale: The initial BLS assessment focuses on responsiveness and breathing to rapidly
identify possible cardiac arrest. An unresponsive person with absent or abnormal breathing
requires prompt resuscitation actions.
2. An unresponsive adult is making occasional irregular gasping sounds. How should these
respirations be interpreted?
A. They should be treated as abnormal breathing associated with possible cardiac arrest
B. They indicate adequate ventilation
C. They indicate the person is recovering
D. They are evidence that CPR is unnecessary
Rationale: Occasional gasping is not normal breathing and may occur during cardiac arrest.
The rescuer should activate the emergency response system and initiate CPR when appropriate.
3. Which chest-compression rate is recommended for high-quality CPR in adults?
A. 80–90 compressions/min
B. 90–100 compressions/min
C. 120–140 compressions/min
D. 100–120 compressions/min
Rationale: The recommended adult compression rate is 100–120 compressions per minute. Rates
substantially below or above this range can reduce CPR effectiveness.
4. During adult CPR, how deep should the rescuer compress the chest?
A. Approximately 1 inch (2.5 cm)
B. At least 2 inches (5 cm), while avoiding excessive depth
C. Approximately 3 inches (7.5 cm)
D. Until the ribs can be felt moving
,Rationale: Adult chest compressions should be at least 2 inches (5 cm) deep while avoiding
excessive compression depth. Proper depth helps generate effective blood flow during cardiac
arrest.
5. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR without an
advanced airway?
A. 15:2
B. 20:2
C. 30:2
D. 30:1
Rationale: Single-rescuer conventional CPR for adults uses 30 chest compressions followed by 2
breaths. This sequence balances circulation with ventilation.
6. Which technique best promotes effective chest recoil during CPR?
A. Keeping constant downward pressure on the sternum
B. Pausing for several seconds after every compression
C. Increasing compression depth with each cycle
D. Allowing the chest to return completely to its normal position after each compression
Rationale: Complete chest recoil allows the heart to refill between compressions. Leaning on the
chest can reduce venous return and compromise CPR quality.
7. A rescuer is performing CPR and another trained rescuer arrives. How frequently should
compressors generally switch to reduce fatigue?
A. About every 2 minutes
B. Every 30 seconds
C. Every 5 minutes
D. Only when the first rescuer becomes unable to continue
Rationale: Switching the person performing compressions about every 2 minutes can help
maintain adequate compression depth and quality while minimizing unnecessary interruptions.
8. Why should interruptions in chest compressions be minimized?
A. Interruptions prevent the AED from analyzing rhythm
B. Interruptions always cause ventricular fibrillation
C. Interruptions eliminate the effectiveness of rescue breaths
D. Interruptions reduce the blood flow generated by CPR
Rationale: Chest compressions generate blood flow to vital organs. Frequent or prolonged
interruptions reduce perfusion and can negatively affect resuscitation.
, 9. An AED arrives while adult CPR is in progress. What is the appropriate action?
A. Complete 10 additional minutes of CPR before using it
B. Apply the AED as soon as possible and follow its prompts
C. Wait until the patient develops a pulse
D. Use the AED only after administering medication
Rationale: Early AED use is important because ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular
tachycardia can require defibrillation. CPR should continue while the AED is prepared and
applied.
10. During AED rhythm analysis, which action is essential?
A. Continue chest compressions
B. Hold the patient's shoulders still
C. Ensure that no one is touching the patient
D. Provide rescue breaths continuously
Rationale: Everyone must be clear of the patient during AED rhythm analysis so the device can
accurately analyze the rhythm and prevent interference.
11. After an AED delivers a shock, what should the rescuer do next?
A. Immediately check the blood pressure
B. Wait for the AED to repeat the shock automatically
C. Remove the AED pads
D. Immediately resume CPR, beginning with chest compressions
Rationale: CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock unless the AED directs otherwise.
Prompt continuation of compressions minimizes interruptions in circulation.
12. The AED announces that no shock is advised. What should the rescuer do?
A. Immediately resume CPR as directed by the AED
B. Deliver a manual shock
C. Remove the AED and wait for EMS
D. Give two additional rescue breaths before restarting CPR
Rationale: A nonshockable rhythm does not benefit from defibrillation. The rescuer should
follow the AED prompts and promptly resume CPR.
13. Where should the rescuer place the hands for adult chest compressions?
A. Over the upper abdomen
B. On the left side of the chest
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A healthcare professional approaches an adult who has suddenly collapsed. The person
does not respond to verbal stimulation. What is the most appropriate immediate
assessment?
A. Check the blood pressure
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. Assess breathing and determine whether cardiac arrest is present
D. Administer oxygen before further assessment
Rationale: The initial BLS assessment focuses on responsiveness and breathing to rapidly
identify possible cardiac arrest. An unresponsive person with absent or abnormal breathing
requires prompt resuscitation actions.
2. An unresponsive adult is making occasional irregular gasping sounds. How should these
respirations be interpreted?
A. They should be treated as abnormal breathing associated with possible cardiac arrest
B. They indicate adequate ventilation
C. They indicate the person is recovering
D. They are evidence that CPR is unnecessary
Rationale: Occasional gasping is not normal breathing and may occur during cardiac arrest.
The rescuer should activate the emergency response system and initiate CPR when appropriate.
3. Which chest-compression rate is recommended for high-quality CPR in adults?
A. 80–90 compressions/min
B. 90–100 compressions/min
C. 120–140 compressions/min
D. 100–120 compressions/min
Rationale: The recommended adult compression rate is 100–120 compressions per minute. Rates
substantially below or above this range can reduce CPR effectiveness.
4. During adult CPR, how deep should the rescuer compress the chest?
A. Approximately 1 inch (2.5 cm)
B. At least 2 inches (5 cm), while avoiding excessive depth
C. Approximately 3 inches (7.5 cm)
D. Until the ribs can be felt moving
,Rationale: Adult chest compressions should be at least 2 inches (5 cm) deep while avoiding
excessive compression depth. Proper depth helps generate effective blood flow during cardiac
arrest.
5. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR without an
advanced airway?
A. 15:2
B. 20:2
C. 30:2
D. 30:1
Rationale: Single-rescuer conventional CPR for adults uses 30 chest compressions followed by 2
breaths. This sequence balances circulation with ventilation.
6. Which technique best promotes effective chest recoil during CPR?
A. Keeping constant downward pressure on the sternum
B. Pausing for several seconds after every compression
C. Increasing compression depth with each cycle
D. Allowing the chest to return completely to its normal position after each compression
Rationale: Complete chest recoil allows the heart to refill between compressions. Leaning on the
chest can reduce venous return and compromise CPR quality.
7. A rescuer is performing CPR and another trained rescuer arrives. How frequently should
compressors generally switch to reduce fatigue?
A. About every 2 minutes
B. Every 30 seconds
C. Every 5 minutes
D. Only when the first rescuer becomes unable to continue
Rationale: Switching the person performing compressions about every 2 minutes can help
maintain adequate compression depth and quality while minimizing unnecessary interruptions.
8. Why should interruptions in chest compressions be minimized?
A. Interruptions prevent the AED from analyzing rhythm
B. Interruptions always cause ventricular fibrillation
C. Interruptions eliminate the effectiveness of rescue breaths
D. Interruptions reduce the blood flow generated by CPR
Rationale: Chest compressions generate blood flow to vital organs. Frequent or prolonged
interruptions reduce perfusion and can negatively affect resuscitation.
, 9. An AED arrives while adult CPR is in progress. What is the appropriate action?
A. Complete 10 additional minutes of CPR before using it
B. Apply the AED as soon as possible and follow its prompts
C. Wait until the patient develops a pulse
D. Use the AED only after administering medication
Rationale: Early AED use is important because ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular
tachycardia can require defibrillation. CPR should continue while the AED is prepared and
applied.
10. During AED rhythm analysis, which action is essential?
A. Continue chest compressions
B. Hold the patient's shoulders still
C. Ensure that no one is touching the patient
D. Provide rescue breaths continuously
Rationale: Everyone must be clear of the patient during AED rhythm analysis so the device can
accurately analyze the rhythm and prevent interference.
11. After an AED delivers a shock, what should the rescuer do next?
A. Immediately check the blood pressure
B. Wait for the AED to repeat the shock automatically
C. Remove the AED pads
D. Immediately resume CPR, beginning with chest compressions
Rationale: CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock unless the AED directs otherwise.
Prompt continuation of compressions minimizes interruptions in circulation.
12. The AED announces that no shock is advised. What should the rescuer do?
A. Immediately resume CPR as directed by the AED
B. Deliver a manual shock
C. Remove the AED and wait for EMS
D. Give two additional rescue breaths before restarting CPR
Rationale: A nonshockable rhythm does not benefit from defibrillation. The rescuer should
follow the AED prompts and promptly resume CPR.
13. Where should the rescuer place the hands for adult chest compressions?
A. Over the upper abdomen
B. On the left side of the chest
