NUR 2811 CAPSTONE MODULE 2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | 2026/2027 UPDATED | 100%
CORRECT - INTERNATIONAL COLLEGE OF HEALTH SCIENCES.
90 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 2811 CAPSTONE MODULE 2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | 2026/2027
UPDATED | 100% CORRECT - INTERNATIONAL COLLEGE OF HEALTH SCIENCES.. It contains 90 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 90 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 2811 Capstone Module 2 AND WITH Rationales 2026/2027 Updated 100
Correct - International College OF Health Sciences NUR 2811 Capstone Module 2 AND WITH Rationales
2026/2027 Updated 100 Correct - International College OF Health Sciences University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-15 Appropriate, Acute, Intervention, Diabetes, Stage
Safety AND Infection Control 16-30 Pressure, Medication, Oxygen, Airway, First
Health Promotion AND 31-45 Reviewing, Medication, Safety, Patient S, Opioid
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 46-60 Appropriate, Medication, Evaluating, Blood, Charge
Basic CARE AND Comfort 61-75 Finding, Syndrome, Acute, Blood, Intervention
Pharmacological Therapies 76-90 Finding, Indicates, Blood, Appropriate, Receiving
TOTAL 90 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient with type 2 diabetes and stage 3 CKD is started on metformin. Estimated GFR is
40 mL/min/1.73m². Which action is most appropriate?
A. Continue metformin at a reduced dose B. Discontinue metformin immediately due
and monitor renal function every 3 months to contraindication
C. Continue metformin at the usual dose D. Switch to metformin extended-release to
with annual renal monitoring reduce renal risk
Correct: A - Continue metformin at a reduced dose and monitor renal function every 3
months
Rationale:Current guidelines permit metformin use if eGFR is 30-45 mL/min, but the dose
should not be initiated, and if already on it, the dose should be reduced to a maximum of 1000
mg/day with close renal monitoring. Discontinuation is only required when eGFR drops below
30. Extended-release does not alter renal clearance.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Discontinuation is not required until eGFR falls below 30 mL/min/1.73m².
C. Annual monitoring is insufficient; renal function should be checked every 3 months when
eGFR is 30-45 mL/min.
D. Switching to extended-release does not change renal excretion of the drug, so it does not
mitigate the risk.
Reference: American Diabetes Association. (2026). Standards of Care in Diabetes-2026. Diabetes Care,
49(Suppl 1).
Q2.
A patient with acute decompensated heart failure has a pulmonary artery catheter
showing cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m², PCWP 24 mm Hg, and SVR 1600 dyn-s-cm. Blood
pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Initiate dobutamine infusion B. Initiate norepinephrine infusion
C. Initiate nitroprusside infusion D. Initiate milrinone infusion
Correct: D - Initiate milrinone infusion
Rationale:Milrinone, an inodilator, increases cardiac contractility and reduces afterload (SVR)
without increasing myocardial oxygen demand as much as catecholamines. The patient has
low cardiac output, high filling pressures, and markedly elevated SVR-milrinone addresses all
three. Dobutamine would increase contractility but may not adequately reduce afterload;
norepinephrine would worsen afterload; nitroprusside would reduce afterload but lacks
inotropic support.
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Dobutamine increases contractility but may not sufficiently reduce the elevated SVR and could increase myocardial oxygen demand.
B. Norepinephrine is a vasopressor that would further increase SVR, worsening afterload.
C. Nitroprusside would reduce afterload but provides no inotropic support, risking further hypotension in a patient with low cardiac output.
Reference: Yancy, C.W., et al. (2013). 2013 ACCF/AHA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure.
Circulation, 128(16):e240-e327.
Q3.
A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism presents with confusion, ataxia, and
ophthalmoplegia. Immediately after drawing blood for labs, which intervention should be
administered first?
A. IV thiamine 100 mg B. IV glucose 50% (D50)
C. IV magnesium sulfate D. Oral multivitamin
Correct: A - IV thiamine 100 mg
Rationale:The patient likely has Wernicke encephalopathy. Thiamine must be given before or
concurrently with glucose to prevent precipitation or worsening of Wernicke-Korsakoff
syndrome. Glucose metabolism depletes thiamine stores, so glucose without thiamine can be
catastrophic. Magnesium is important but not the priority; oral multivitamins are insufficient in
this acute setting.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Giving glucose without thiamine can precipitate or worsen Wernicke encephalopathy;
thiamine is the priority.
C. Magnesium replacement is important but does not address the acute thiamine deficiency
causing the neurologic symptoms.
D. Oral multivitamins are not appropriate for acute treatment; IV thiamine is required.
Reference: Galvin, R., et al. (2010). EFNS guidelines for diagnosis, therapy and prevention of Wernicke
encephalopathy. European Journal of Neurology, 17(12):1408-1418.
Q4.
A patient on a heparin infusion for acute VTE develops a sudden drop in platelet count
from 220,000 to 48,000/µL, with new thrombotic skin necrosis. Which test is most specific
for confirming the diagnosis?
A. Anti-platelet factor 4/heparin ELISA B. Serotonin release assay
C. Platelet aggregation test with low-dose D. Complete blood count with peripheral
heparin smear
Correct: B - Serotonin release assay
Page 4
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | 2026/2027 UPDATED | 100%
CORRECT - INTERNATIONAL COLLEGE OF HEALTH SCIENCES.
90 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 2811 CAPSTONE MODULE 2 EXAM | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | 2026/2027
UPDATED | 100% CORRECT - INTERNATIONAL COLLEGE OF HEALTH SCIENCES.. It contains 90 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 90 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 2811 Capstone Module 2 AND WITH Rationales 2026/2027 Updated 100
Correct - International College OF Health Sciences NUR 2811 Capstone Module 2 AND WITH Rationales
2026/2027 Updated 100 Correct - International College OF Health Sciences University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-15 Appropriate, Acute, Intervention, Diabetes, Stage
Safety AND Infection Control 16-30 Pressure, Medication, Oxygen, Airway, First
Health Promotion AND 31-45 Reviewing, Medication, Safety, Patient S, Opioid
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 46-60 Appropriate, Medication, Evaluating, Blood, Charge
Basic CARE AND Comfort 61-75 Finding, Syndrome, Acute, Blood, Intervention
Pharmacological Therapies 76-90 Finding, Indicates, Blood, Appropriate, Receiving
TOTAL 90 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient with type 2 diabetes and stage 3 CKD is started on metformin. Estimated GFR is
40 mL/min/1.73m². Which action is most appropriate?
A. Continue metformin at a reduced dose B. Discontinue metformin immediately due
and monitor renal function every 3 months to contraindication
C. Continue metformin at the usual dose D. Switch to metformin extended-release to
with annual renal monitoring reduce renal risk
Correct: A - Continue metformin at a reduced dose and monitor renal function every 3
months
Rationale:Current guidelines permit metformin use if eGFR is 30-45 mL/min, but the dose
should not be initiated, and if already on it, the dose should be reduced to a maximum of 1000
mg/day with close renal monitoring. Discontinuation is only required when eGFR drops below
30. Extended-release does not alter renal clearance.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Discontinuation is not required until eGFR falls below 30 mL/min/1.73m².
C. Annual monitoring is insufficient; renal function should be checked every 3 months when
eGFR is 30-45 mL/min.
D. Switching to extended-release does not change renal excretion of the drug, so it does not
mitigate the risk.
Reference: American Diabetes Association. (2026). Standards of Care in Diabetes-2026. Diabetes Care,
49(Suppl 1).
Q2.
A patient with acute decompensated heart failure has a pulmonary artery catheter
showing cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m², PCWP 24 mm Hg, and SVR 1600 dyn-s-cm. Blood
pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Initiate dobutamine infusion B. Initiate norepinephrine infusion
C. Initiate nitroprusside infusion D. Initiate milrinone infusion
Correct: D - Initiate milrinone infusion
Rationale:Milrinone, an inodilator, increases cardiac contractility and reduces afterload (SVR)
without increasing myocardial oxygen demand as much as catecholamines. The patient has
low cardiac output, high filling pressures, and markedly elevated SVR-milrinone addresses all
three. Dobutamine would increase contractility but may not adequately reduce afterload;
norepinephrine would worsen afterload; nitroprusside would reduce afterload but lacks
inotropic support.
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Dobutamine increases contractility but may not sufficiently reduce the elevated SVR and could increase myocardial oxygen demand.
B. Norepinephrine is a vasopressor that would further increase SVR, worsening afterload.
C. Nitroprusside would reduce afterload but provides no inotropic support, risking further hypotension in a patient with low cardiac output.
Reference: Yancy, C.W., et al. (2013). 2013 ACCF/AHA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure.
Circulation, 128(16):e240-e327.
Q3.
A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism presents with confusion, ataxia, and
ophthalmoplegia. Immediately after drawing blood for labs, which intervention should be
administered first?
A. IV thiamine 100 mg B. IV glucose 50% (D50)
C. IV magnesium sulfate D. Oral multivitamin
Correct: A - IV thiamine 100 mg
Rationale:The patient likely has Wernicke encephalopathy. Thiamine must be given before or
concurrently with glucose to prevent precipitation or worsening of Wernicke-Korsakoff
syndrome. Glucose metabolism depletes thiamine stores, so glucose without thiamine can be
catastrophic. Magnesium is important but not the priority; oral multivitamins are insufficient in
this acute setting.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Giving glucose without thiamine can precipitate or worsen Wernicke encephalopathy;
thiamine is the priority.
C. Magnesium replacement is important but does not address the acute thiamine deficiency
causing the neurologic symptoms.
D. Oral multivitamins are not appropriate for acute treatment; IV thiamine is required.
Reference: Galvin, R., et al. (2010). EFNS guidelines for diagnosis, therapy and prevention of Wernicke
encephalopathy. European Journal of Neurology, 17(12):1408-1418.
Q4.
A patient on a heparin infusion for acute VTE develops a sudden drop in platelet count
from 220,000 to 48,000/µL, with new thrombotic skin necrosis. Which test is most specific
for confirming the diagnosis?
A. Anti-platelet factor 4/heparin ELISA B. Serotonin release assay
C. Platelet aggregation test with low-dose D. Complete blood count with peripheral
heparin smear
Correct: B - Serotonin release assay
Page 4
