ATI TEAS 6 Reading-English | 2026/2027 Edition Comprehensive Examination
ATI TEAS 6 READING-ENGLISH
Comprehensive Examination — 2026/2027 Edition
TOTAL QUESTIONS 50 TIME LIMIT 65 minutes
READING SECTION 22 questions ENGLISH SECTION 28 questions
30% Recall / 40% Application /
COGNITIVE LEVELS FORMAT Multiple Choice (A-D)
30% Analysis
Instructions: This examination consists of 50 multiple-choice questions divided into two sections. Section 1 (Reading)
contains 22 questions assessing key ideas and details, craft and structure, integration of knowledge and ideas, and
vocabulary in context. Section 2 (English and Language Usage) contains 28 questions covering grammar and punctuation,
usage and mechanics, and vocabulary. Select the single best answer for each question. Answer rationales and correct option
indicators are provided beneath each question for immediate review and self-assessment, aligned with the ATI TEAS Version
6 Content Outline.
Section 1: Reading
22 questions covering Key Ideas and Details, Craft and Structure, Integration of Knowledge and Ideas, and Vocabulary in
Context.
Key Ideas and Details (Q1-Q8) — Main ideas, supporting details, summarizing, inferences, fact vs. opinion,
sequence
Q1: Read the following passage:
“Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to prevent the transmission of healthcare-associated infections.
Despite decades of education, compliance among healthcare workers rarely exceeds 40 percent on a sustained basis.
Studies suggest that staffing shortages, skin irritation from alcohol-based gels, and the perception that gloves
substitute for handwashing all contribute to suboptimal adherence.”
Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
A. Alcohol-based gels cause skin irritation that discourages hand hygiene.
B. Hand hygiene is essential but compliance remains low due to multiple factors. [CORRECT]
C. Healthcare workers should wear gloves instead of washing their hands.
D. Staffing shortages are the only cause of poor hand hygiene compliance.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main idea must capture the central claim of the passage as a whole. The passage introduces hand hygiene as
the most effective prevention measure, then explains why compliance stays below 40 percent, citing multiple contributing
factors. Option B is the only choice that encompasses both the importance of hand hygiene and the multi-factor nature of low
compliance. Options A and D overstate single causes (ATI TEAS Reading: Key Ideas and Details — identify main idea).
Option C contradicts the passage.
Page 1 Z.ai - Nursing Education
,ATI TEAS 6 Reading-English | 2026/2027 Edition Comprehensive Examination
Q2: A nursing student is summarizing a patient education brochure about type 2 diabetes. Which detail would be
considered a supporting detail rather than the main idea?
A. Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition affecting how the body processes glucose.
B. Patients with type 2 diabetes should monitor their blood glucose regularly and follow a balanced meal
plan. [CORRECT]
C. The brochure emphasizes lifestyle modification as the cornerstone of type 2 diabetes management.
D. Type 2 diabetes management centers on lifestyle modification and glucose control.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Supporting details elaborate or illustrate the main idea rather than stating the central thesis. Options A, C, and D
each express broad claims that function as topic sentences or thesis statements. Option B provides a specific behavioral
recommendation that supports the broader main idea of lifestyle modification (ATI TEAS Reading: distinguish main idea
from supporting details).
Q3: A patient discharge summary reads in part: “The patient was admitted on Monday with pneumonia, started on
antibiotics Tuesday, showed improvement by Thursday, and was discharged on Saturday.” Which of the following
conclusions can most reasonably be inferred?
A. The patient did not respond to the antibiotic therapy.
B. The patient improved over the course of hospitalization. [CORRECT]
C. The patient was discharged against medical advice.
D. The patient required readmission within 48 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inferences require drawing a logical conclusion from stated evidence without assuming information not provided.
The passage explicitly notes “showed improvement by Thursday” and discharge on Saturday, supporting option B. Options
A, C, and D introduce information not present in the text and therefore cannot be validly inferred (ATI TEAS Reading: draw
conclusions and make inferences from textual evidence).
Q4: Which of the following statements is a fact rather than an opinion?
A. Morning shift nurses are more compassionate than evening shift nurses.
B. The hospital’s new electronic health record system is the best investment the administration has ever made.
C. The patient’s oral temperature at 08:00 was 38.4 degrees Celsius. [CORRECT]
D. Every nursing student should specialize in critical care.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fact is a statement that can be verified objectively through observation, measurement, or documentation. Option
C reports a specific measurable temperature and can be confirmed against the medical record. Options A, B, and D contain
evaluative or prescriptive language (“more compassionate,” “best investment,” “should”) reflecting personal judgments
(ATI TEAS Reading: distinguish fact from opinion).
Page 2 Z.ai - Nursing Education
, ATI TEAS 6 Reading-English | 2026/2027 Edition Comprehensive Examination
Q5: A clinical procedure manual describes wound care in the following sequence: (1) wash hands and don clean
gloves; (2) remove old dressing and assess wound; (3) discard gloves and perform hand hygiene; (4) don sterile
gloves; (5) cleanse wound with sterile saline; (6) apply new sterile dressing. Which step immediately follows
removal of the old dressing?
A. Wash hands and don clean gloves
B. Discard gloves and perform hand hygiene [CORRECT]
C. Cleanse wound with sterile saline
D. Apply new sterile dressing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sequence-of-events questions require tracking the chronological order of steps in a process. According to the
manual, step 2 (remove old dressing and assess wound) is immediately followed by step 3 (discard gloves and perform hand
hygiene), making option B correct. Option A is step 1, option C is step 5, and option D is step 6 (ATI TEAS Reading:
understand sequence of events and chronological order).
Q6: Read the passage: “Although the patient reported no chest pain during the morning assessment, the nurse noted
mild diaphoresis and pallor. Reviewing the vital signs trend, she observed a subtle drop in blood pressure from
128/82 to 104/68 over four hours. She elevated the head of the bed, contacted the provider, and obtained a 12-lead
ECG.” What is the most logical inference the nurse made based on these findings?
A. The patient was experiencing anxiety unrelated to cardiac function.
B. The patient’s findings suggested possible hemodynamic instability requiring urgent evaluation.
[CORRECT]
C. The patient had recovered from the morning assessment.
D. The patient was preparing for routine discharge.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The passage describes subtle but concerning changes (diaphoresis, pallor, blood pressure drop) that prompted
the nurse to take escalating action. The most reasonable inference is that the nurse suspected hemodynamic instability
warranting urgent provider evaluation, matching option B. Options A, C, and D are contradicted by the nurse’s urgent
response (ATI TEAS Reading: draw inferences from textual evidence and contextual clues).
Q7: Which of the following best summarizes the following text?
“Pressure injuries develop when sustained pressure over a bony prominence reduces blood flow to soft tissue.
Immobility, poor nutrition, moisture, and impaired sensation all heighten risk. Prevention therefore depends on
repositioning every two hours, maintaining skin integrity, optimizing nutrition, and managing moisture.”
A. Pressure injuries are caused exclusively by immobility.
B. Pressure injuries result from sustained pressure compounded by multiple risk factors, and prevention
requires a multifaceted approach. [CORRECT]
C. Patients should be repositioned every five hours to prevent pressure injuries.
D. Pressure injuries are unavoidable in immobilized patients.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An effective summary captures the central idea and key supporting points without distortion or omission. Option B
integrates the cause (sustained pressure), the contributing risk factors, and the multifaceted prevention strategy. Options A
and C overstate or misrepresent a single factor, and option D contradicts the preventive emphasis (ATI TEAS Reading:
summarize text accurately).
Page 3 Z.ai - Nursing Education
ATI TEAS 6 READING-ENGLISH
Comprehensive Examination — 2026/2027 Edition
TOTAL QUESTIONS 50 TIME LIMIT 65 minutes
READING SECTION 22 questions ENGLISH SECTION 28 questions
30% Recall / 40% Application /
COGNITIVE LEVELS FORMAT Multiple Choice (A-D)
30% Analysis
Instructions: This examination consists of 50 multiple-choice questions divided into two sections. Section 1 (Reading)
contains 22 questions assessing key ideas and details, craft and structure, integration of knowledge and ideas, and
vocabulary in context. Section 2 (English and Language Usage) contains 28 questions covering grammar and punctuation,
usage and mechanics, and vocabulary. Select the single best answer for each question. Answer rationales and correct option
indicators are provided beneath each question for immediate review and self-assessment, aligned with the ATI TEAS Version
6 Content Outline.
Section 1: Reading
22 questions covering Key Ideas and Details, Craft and Structure, Integration of Knowledge and Ideas, and Vocabulary in
Context.
Key Ideas and Details (Q1-Q8) — Main ideas, supporting details, summarizing, inferences, fact vs. opinion,
sequence
Q1: Read the following passage:
“Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to prevent the transmission of healthcare-associated infections.
Despite decades of education, compliance among healthcare workers rarely exceeds 40 percent on a sustained basis.
Studies suggest that staffing shortages, skin irritation from alcohol-based gels, and the perception that gloves
substitute for handwashing all contribute to suboptimal adherence.”
Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
A. Alcohol-based gels cause skin irritation that discourages hand hygiene.
B. Hand hygiene is essential but compliance remains low due to multiple factors. [CORRECT]
C. Healthcare workers should wear gloves instead of washing their hands.
D. Staffing shortages are the only cause of poor hand hygiene compliance.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main idea must capture the central claim of the passage as a whole. The passage introduces hand hygiene as
the most effective prevention measure, then explains why compliance stays below 40 percent, citing multiple contributing
factors. Option B is the only choice that encompasses both the importance of hand hygiene and the multi-factor nature of low
compliance. Options A and D overstate single causes (ATI TEAS Reading: Key Ideas and Details — identify main idea).
Option C contradicts the passage.
Page 1 Z.ai - Nursing Education
,ATI TEAS 6 Reading-English | 2026/2027 Edition Comprehensive Examination
Q2: A nursing student is summarizing a patient education brochure about type 2 diabetes. Which detail would be
considered a supporting detail rather than the main idea?
A. Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition affecting how the body processes glucose.
B. Patients with type 2 diabetes should monitor their blood glucose regularly and follow a balanced meal
plan. [CORRECT]
C. The brochure emphasizes lifestyle modification as the cornerstone of type 2 diabetes management.
D. Type 2 diabetes management centers on lifestyle modification and glucose control.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Supporting details elaborate or illustrate the main idea rather than stating the central thesis. Options A, C, and D
each express broad claims that function as topic sentences or thesis statements. Option B provides a specific behavioral
recommendation that supports the broader main idea of lifestyle modification (ATI TEAS Reading: distinguish main idea
from supporting details).
Q3: A patient discharge summary reads in part: “The patient was admitted on Monday with pneumonia, started on
antibiotics Tuesday, showed improvement by Thursday, and was discharged on Saturday.” Which of the following
conclusions can most reasonably be inferred?
A. The patient did not respond to the antibiotic therapy.
B. The patient improved over the course of hospitalization. [CORRECT]
C. The patient was discharged against medical advice.
D. The patient required readmission within 48 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inferences require drawing a logical conclusion from stated evidence without assuming information not provided.
The passage explicitly notes “showed improvement by Thursday” and discharge on Saturday, supporting option B. Options
A, C, and D introduce information not present in the text and therefore cannot be validly inferred (ATI TEAS Reading: draw
conclusions and make inferences from textual evidence).
Q4: Which of the following statements is a fact rather than an opinion?
A. Morning shift nurses are more compassionate than evening shift nurses.
B. The hospital’s new electronic health record system is the best investment the administration has ever made.
C. The patient’s oral temperature at 08:00 was 38.4 degrees Celsius. [CORRECT]
D. Every nursing student should specialize in critical care.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fact is a statement that can be verified objectively through observation, measurement, or documentation. Option
C reports a specific measurable temperature and can be confirmed against the medical record. Options A, B, and D contain
evaluative or prescriptive language (“more compassionate,” “best investment,” “should”) reflecting personal judgments
(ATI TEAS Reading: distinguish fact from opinion).
Page 2 Z.ai - Nursing Education
, ATI TEAS 6 Reading-English | 2026/2027 Edition Comprehensive Examination
Q5: A clinical procedure manual describes wound care in the following sequence: (1) wash hands and don clean
gloves; (2) remove old dressing and assess wound; (3) discard gloves and perform hand hygiene; (4) don sterile
gloves; (5) cleanse wound with sterile saline; (6) apply new sterile dressing. Which step immediately follows
removal of the old dressing?
A. Wash hands and don clean gloves
B. Discard gloves and perform hand hygiene [CORRECT]
C. Cleanse wound with sterile saline
D. Apply new sterile dressing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sequence-of-events questions require tracking the chronological order of steps in a process. According to the
manual, step 2 (remove old dressing and assess wound) is immediately followed by step 3 (discard gloves and perform hand
hygiene), making option B correct. Option A is step 1, option C is step 5, and option D is step 6 (ATI TEAS Reading:
understand sequence of events and chronological order).
Q6: Read the passage: “Although the patient reported no chest pain during the morning assessment, the nurse noted
mild diaphoresis and pallor. Reviewing the vital signs trend, she observed a subtle drop in blood pressure from
128/82 to 104/68 over four hours. She elevated the head of the bed, contacted the provider, and obtained a 12-lead
ECG.” What is the most logical inference the nurse made based on these findings?
A. The patient was experiencing anxiety unrelated to cardiac function.
B. The patient’s findings suggested possible hemodynamic instability requiring urgent evaluation.
[CORRECT]
C. The patient had recovered from the morning assessment.
D. The patient was preparing for routine discharge.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The passage describes subtle but concerning changes (diaphoresis, pallor, blood pressure drop) that prompted
the nurse to take escalating action. The most reasonable inference is that the nurse suspected hemodynamic instability
warranting urgent provider evaluation, matching option B. Options A, C, and D are contradicted by the nurse’s urgent
response (ATI TEAS Reading: draw inferences from textual evidence and contextual clues).
Q7: Which of the following best summarizes the following text?
“Pressure injuries develop when sustained pressure over a bony prominence reduces blood flow to soft tissue.
Immobility, poor nutrition, moisture, and impaired sensation all heighten risk. Prevention therefore depends on
repositioning every two hours, maintaining skin integrity, optimizing nutrition, and managing moisture.”
A. Pressure injuries are caused exclusively by immobility.
B. Pressure injuries result from sustained pressure compounded by multiple risk factors, and prevention
requires a multifaceted approach. [CORRECT]
C. Patients should be repositioned every five hours to prevent pressure injuries.
D. Pressure injuries are unavoidable in immobilized patients.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An effective summary captures the central idea and key supporting points without distortion or omission. Option B
integrates the cause (sustained pressure), the contributing risk factors, and the multifaceted prevention strategy. Options A
and C overstate or misrepresent a single factor, and option D contradicts the preventive emphasis (ATI TEAS Reading:
summarize text accurately).
Page 3 Z.ai - Nursing Education
