EXAM 3
(Pharmacology)
Actual Questions w/Correct Answers
(Next-Generation NCLEX (NGN) style)
Herzing University
What you Will Get:
• 50+ verified questions
• Correct answers with Rationales.
• Ideal for exam preparation and concept reinforcement.
,Question 1. A client has a new prescription for captopril (Capoten), an ACE
inhibitor. Which adverse effect should the nurse teach the client to report if it
becomes persistent or troublesome?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Orange discoloration of urine
C. Constipation
D. Hearing loss
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors such as captopril increase bradykinin levels, which can produce a
characteristic persistent, dry cough. Captopril is also substantially eliminated through
the kidneys, making renal assessment important.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option B: Orange-red body fluids are associated with rifampin.
Option C: Constipation is not a characteristic ACE inhibitor adverse effect.
Option D: Ototoxicity is more strongly associated with medications such as
aminoglycosides and some loop diuretics.
Question 2. Before administering captopril, which assessment is especially
important?
A. Visual acuity
B. BUN and serum creatinine
C. Hemoglobin A1C only
D. Serum amylase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Captopril is eliminated primarily through the kidneys. BUN and creatinine help evaluate
renal function and determine whether accumulation or worsening renal impairment may
occur.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A: Captopril does not primarily cause ocular toxicity.
, Option C: Glucose control is not the major preadministration concern.
Option D: Pancreatic function is not the primary safety assessment.
Question 3. A nurse is assessing a client for orthostatic hypotension. Which
technique is appropriate?
A. Measure blood pressure only while standing.
B. Measure blood pressure in both arms simultaneously.
C. Measure blood pressure after the client exercises.
D. Compare blood pressure and pulse while lying, sitting, and standing.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Orthostatic blood pressure assessment evaluates changes associated with position. A
clinically important decline after moving upright can indicate orthostatic hypotension.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A: A standing measurement alone does not identify the positional change.
Option B: Comparing arms evaluates inter-arm differences rather than orthostasis.
Option C: Exercise alters blood pressure and does not test the intended phenomenon.
Question 4. Select All That Apply: Which medications listed in the source may be
used in the management of hypertension?
A. Hydralazine (Apresoline)
B. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
C. Eplerenone (Inspra)
D. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale:
Option A: Correct. Hydralazine is a direct vasodilator used to lower blood pressure.
Option B: Correct. Metoprolol is a beta1-selective blocker used for hypertension and
other cardiovascular conditions.
Option C: Correct. Eplerenone is an aldosterone antagonist that can reduce blood
pressure in selected clients.
Option D: Incorrect. Atorvastatin is a lipid-lowering statin and is not primarily an
antihypertensive.