LS 7C /LIFESCI 7C FINAL EXAM |
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | UPDATED
VERSION | 100% CORRECT - UCLA.
70 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
LS 7C /LIFESCI 7C FINAL EXAM | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | UPDATED VERSION | 100% CORRECT -
UCLA.. It contains 70 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing
strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the
underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 70 Questions
Foundations - Application - LS 7c /lifesci 7c AND Updated Version 100 Correct - UCLA LS 7c /lifesci 7c
AND Updated Version 100 Correct - UCLA University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Central Dogma DNA 1-12 Describes, Explains, Activation, Diabetes, Prescribed
Replication Transcription
AND Translation
GENE Regulation IN 13-24 Explains, Directly, Researcher, Genetic, Mutation
Prokaryotes AND Eukaryotes
Molecular Biology 25-36 Mutation, Likely, Protein, Population, Mitochondrial
Techniques PCR Cloning
Sequencing
Genetics Mendelian AND 37-48 Researcher, Studying, Pathway, Likely, Circadian
Non-mendelian Inheritance
Population Genetics AND 49-60 Likely, Mutation, Population, Researcher, Converts
Evolution
Developmental Biology AND 61-70 Likely, Region, Expression, Phenotype, Forebrain
STEM Cells
TOTAL 70 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Central Dogma DNA Replication Transcription
AND Translation
Q1.
A 45-year-old individual with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which of the
following best describes the primary mechanism by which metformin reduces hepatic
glucose production?
A. Activation of AMPK, leading to decreased B. Inhibition of mitochondrial complex I,
gluconeogenic enzyme expression increasing AMP/ATP ratio and AMPK
activation
C. Stimulation of insulin secretion from D. Inhibition of intestinal glucose absorption
pancreatic beta cells via SGLT1
Correct: B - Inhibition of mitochondrial complex I, increasing AMP/ATP ratio and AMPK
activation
Rationale:Metformin inhibits mitochondrial complex I, which raises AMP/ATP ratio, activating
AMPK and subsequently reducing gluconeogenesis. While AMPK activation is involved, it is
downstream of mitochondrial inhibition. Metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion or
primarily act on SGLT1.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. AMPK activation is downstream, not the primary direct mechanism.
C. Metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion; it reduces glucose production.
D. Metformin does not inhibit SGLT1; that is the action of SGLT2 inhibitors.
Reference: Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 14th Ed., Ch. 43
Q2.
A 60-year-old with chronic kidney disease (eGFR 25 mL/min) and hypertension is
prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following best explains the rationale for using an ACE
inhibitor in this setting?
A. ACE inhibitors are preferred because B. ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular
they are excreted renally and require no pressure by dilating efferent arterioles,
dose adjustment slowing CKD progression
C. ACE inhibitors increase aldosterone D. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in
secretion, promoting sodium retention and CKD due to risk of hyperkalemia
volume expansion
Correct: B - ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure by dilating efferent arterioles,
slowing CKD progression
Page 3
, Section A - Central Dogma DNA Replication Transcription AND Translation
Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower intraglomerular pressure preferentially by dilating efferent
arterioles, reducing proteinuria and slowing progression of CKD. They require dose
adjustment in renal impairment and may cause hyperkalemia, but are still indicated with
monitoring.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. ACE inhibitors are renally excreted and often need dose reduction in CKD.
C. ACE inhibitors decrease aldosterone, not increase it.
D. They are not contraindicated; they are renoprotective, though potassium must be monitored.
Reference: KDIGO 2024 Clinical Practice Guideline for the Management of Blood Pressure in CKD
Q3.
A researcher is studying a novel G-protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) that signals through
Gq. Which of the following downstream events is most directly triggered by Gq
activation?
A. Activation of adenylyl cyclase and B. Activation of phospholipase C, generating
increased cAMP IP3 and DAG
C. Inhibition of voltage-gated calcium D. Direct phosphorylation of MAP kinase by
channels the G protein
Correct: B - Activation of phospholipase C, generating IP3 and DAG
Rationale:Gq activates phospholipase C, which cleaves PIP2 into IP3 and DAG. IP3 releases
calcium from ER, DAG activates PKC. Gs activates adenylyl cyclase; Gi inhibits it. G proteins
do not directly phosphorylate MAP kinase.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. That is mediated by Gs, not Gq.
C. Gq typically increases intracellular calcium, not inhibits channels directly.
D. MAP kinase activation occurs via downstream signaling cascades, not direct G protein
action.
Reference: Molecular Biology of the Cell, 7th Ed., Alberts et al., Ch. 15
Q4.
In the context of gene regulation, which of the following best describes the role of histone
acetylation in transcriptional activation?
A. Neutralizes the positive charge of lysine B. Increases chromatin compaction by
residues, weakening histone-DNA promoting histone tail interactions
interactions
C. Recruits DNA methyltransferases to D. Permanently removes histones from DNA
silence gene expression to expose promoter regions
Correct: A - Neutralizes the positive charge of lysine residues, weakening histone-DNA
Page 4
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | UPDATED
VERSION | 100% CORRECT - UCLA.
70 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
LS 7C /LIFESCI 7C FINAL EXAM | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | UPDATED VERSION | 100% CORRECT -
UCLA.. It contains 70 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing
strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the
underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 70 Questions
Foundations - Application - LS 7c /lifesci 7c AND Updated Version 100 Correct - UCLA LS 7c /lifesci 7c
AND Updated Version 100 Correct - UCLA University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Central Dogma DNA 1-12 Describes, Explains, Activation, Diabetes, Prescribed
Replication Transcription
AND Translation
GENE Regulation IN 13-24 Explains, Directly, Researcher, Genetic, Mutation
Prokaryotes AND Eukaryotes
Molecular Biology 25-36 Mutation, Likely, Protein, Population, Mitochondrial
Techniques PCR Cloning
Sequencing
Genetics Mendelian AND 37-48 Researcher, Studying, Pathway, Likely, Circadian
Non-mendelian Inheritance
Population Genetics AND 49-60 Likely, Mutation, Population, Researcher, Converts
Evolution
Developmental Biology AND 61-70 Likely, Region, Expression, Phenotype, Forebrain
STEM Cells
TOTAL 70 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Central Dogma DNA Replication Transcription
AND Translation
Q1.
A 45-year-old individual with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which of the
following best describes the primary mechanism by which metformin reduces hepatic
glucose production?
A. Activation of AMPK, leading to decreased B. Inhibition of mitochondrial complex I,
gluconeogenic enzyme expression increasing AMP/ATP ratio and AMPK
activation
C. Stimulation of insulin secretion from D. Inhibition of intestinal glucose absorption
pancreatic beta cells via SGLT1
Correct: B - Inhibition of mitochondrial complex I, increasing AMP/ATP ratio and AMPK
activation
Rationale:Metformin inhibits mitochondrial complex I, which raises AMP/ATP ratio, activating
AMPK and subsequently reducing gluconeogenesis. While AMPK activation is involved, it is
downstream of mitochondrial inhibition. Metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion or
primarily act on SGLT1.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. AMPK activation is downstream, not the primary direct mechanism.
C. Metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion; it reduces glucose production.
D. Metformin does not inhibit SGLT1; that is the action of SGLT2 inhibitors.
Reference: Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 14th Ed., Ch. 43
Q2.
A 60-year-old with chronic kidney disease (eGFR 25 mL/min) and hypertension is
prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following best explains the rationale for using an ACE
inhibitor in this setting?
A. ACE inhibitors are preferred because B. ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular
they are excreted renally and require no pressure by dilating efferent arterioles,
dose adjustment slowing CKD progression
C. ACE inhibitors increase aldosterone D. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in
secretion, promoting sodium retention and CKD due to risk of hyperkalemia
volume expansion
Correct: B - ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure by dilating efferent arterioles,
slowing CKD progression
Page 3
, Section A - Central Dogma DNA Replication Transcription AND Translation
Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower intraglomerular pressure preferentially by dilating efferent
arterioles, reducing proteinuria and slowing progression of CKD. They require dose
adjustment in renal impairment and may cause hyperkalemia, but are still indicated with
monitoring.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. ACE inhibitors are renally excreted and often need dose reduction in CKD.
C. ACE inhibitors decrease aldosterone, not increase it.
D. They are not contraindicated; they are renoprotective, though potassium must be monitored.
Reference: KDIGO 2024 Clinical Practice Guideline for the Management of Blood Pressure in CKD
Q3.
A researcher is studying a novel G-protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) that signals through
Gq. Which of the following downstream events is most directly triggered by Gq
activation?
A. Activation of adenylyl cyclase and B. Activation of phospholipase C, generating
increased cAMP IP3 and DAG
C. Inhibition of voltage-gated calcium D. Direct phosphorylation of MAP kinase by
channels the G protein
Correct: B - Activation of phospholipase C, generating IP3 and DAG
Rationale:Gq activates phospholipase C, which cleaves PIP2 into IP3 and DAG. IP3 releases
calcium from ER, DAG activates PKC. Gs activates adenylyl cyclase; Gi inhibits it. G proteins
do not directly phosphorylate MAP kinase.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. That is mediated by Gs, not Gq.
C. Gq typically increases intracellular calcium, not inhibits channels directly.
D. MAP kinase activation occurs via downstream signaling cascades, not direct G protein
action.
Reference: Molecular Biology of the Cell, 7th Ed., Alberts et al., Ch. 15
Q4.
In the context of gene regulation, which of the following best describes the role of histone
acetylation in transcriptional activation?
A. Neutralizes the positive charge of lysine B. Increases chromatin compaction by
residues, weakening histone-DNA promoting histone tail interactions
interactions
C. Recruits DNA methyltransferases to D. Permanently removes histones from DNA
silence gene expression to expose promoter regions
Correct: A - Neutralizes the positive charge of lysine residues, weakening histone-DNA
Page 4
