ATI Fundamentals for Nursing (Edition 11.0) — 200 High-Yield
Questions
Comprehensive practice set covering all ATI Fundamentals topics at medium difficulty. Includes Safety, Infection,
Assessment, Med Admin, Fluids/Electrolytes, Perioperative, Wound, Mobility, Nutrition, Elimination, Oxygenation,
Pain, Sleep, Hygiene, Documentation, Legal/Ethical, Communication, and Teaching.
Part 1: Practice Questions
Q1. A nurse is orienting a new employee on the unit. Which action by the nurse demonstrates a culture of safety?
A. Reporting all near-miss errors without fear of punishment
B. Blaming staff for errors to prevent recurrence
C. Documenting errors only if harm occurred
D. Avoiding incident reports to protect the unit's statistics
Answer: A
Rationale: A culture of safety encourages reporting near-misses without punishment to identify system issues. Blaming staff,
documenting only harmful errors, and avoiding reports undermine safety.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for falls. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Keep the call light within the client's reach
B. Place the bed in the highest position
C. Keep all four side rails up at all times
D. Encourage the client to ambulate alone
Answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the call light within reach allows the client to request assistance. The bed should be low, side rails used per
policy (not all four up as a restraint), and at-risk clients should not ambulate alone.
Q3. A nurse is using a fire extinguisher on a small fire. Which acronym guides the use of a fire extinguisher?
A. PASS
B. RACE
C. ABC
D. SBAR
Answer: A
Rationale: PASS stands for Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep. RACE is for fire response (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish). ABC is
airway/breathing/circulation. SBAR is communication.
Q4. A nurse witnesses another nurse preparing to administer the wrong medication. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Stop the nurse and verify the correct medication
B. Allow the administration and document it
C. Report the nurse to the manager after the fact
D. Ignore the situation because it is not the nurse's client
Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse must intervene immediately to prevent harm. Allowing the error, delaying reporting, or ignoring the situation
violates safety and ethical standards.
Q5. A nurse is preparing to transfer a client from the bed to a stretcher. Which action prevents injury?
A. Lock the wheels on the bed and stretcher
B. Transfer the client alone without assistance
C. Pull the client by the arms
D. Twist the nurse's body while lifting
Answer: A
Rationale: Locking wheels prevents movement during transfer. Transferring alone, pulling by the arms, and twisting increase injury
risk to both client and nurse.
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client who has a seizure. Which action is a priority during the seizure?
A. Protect the client's head and turn the client to the side
B. Insert a tongue blade into the mouth
C. Restrain the client's limbs
, D. Leave the client to get help
Answer: A
Rationale: Protecting the head and turning to the side maintains airway and prevents injury. Tongue blades, restraints, and leaving
the client are unsafe.
Q7. A nurse is teaching a client about home safety. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. I will install grab bars in the bathroom
B. I will keep loose rugs on the floor
C. I will use a step stool to reach high shelves
D. I will leave cords across walkways
Answer: A
Rationale: Grab bars reduce fall risk. Loose rugs, step stools, and cords across walkways increase fall risk.
Q8. A nurse is reviewing incident reports. Which finding indicates a need for staff education?
A. Multiple medication errors involving similar-sounding drugs
B. No incident reports filed for a month
C. Reports filed only for client falls
D. Reports filed only by new staff
Answer: A
Rationale: Multiple similar errors suggest a system issue (e.g., look-alike drugs) requiring education. No reports may indicate
underreporting. Limiting reports to falls or new staff is not comprehensive.
Q9. A nurse is caring for a client with a latex allergy. Which action is appropriate?
A. Use latex-free gloves and equipment
B. Use latex gloves but change them frequently
C. Place the client in a private room only
D. Avoid using any gloves
Answer: A
Rationale: Latex-free gloves and equipment prevent allergic reactions. Latex gloves should be avoided entirely. A private room is
not required, and gloves are still needed for standard precautions.
Q10. A nurse is prioritizing care for four clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
A. A client with sudden shortness of breath
B. A client requesting pain medication
C. A client needing discharge teaching
D. A client with a low-grade fever
Answer: A
Rationale: Shortness of breath is an ABC priority (airway/breathing). Pain, discharge teaching, and low-grade fever are lower
priorities.
Q11. A nurse is using restraints on a client. Which action is required?
A. Obtain a provider order and monitor the client frequently
B. Apply restraints without an order in an emergency only
C. Leave restraints on for 24 hours
D. Use restraints for staff convenience
Answer: A
Rationale: Restraints require a provider order, frequent monitoring, and are a last resort. They are never for staff convenience and
must be removed as soon as possible.
Q12. A nurse is teaching a client about electrical safety at home. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. I will not use electrical devices near water
B. I will use frayed cords if they still work
C. I will overload outlets to save space
D. I will ignore sparks from outlets
Answer: A
Rationale: Electrical devices should not be used near water. Frayed cords, overloaded outlets, and sparks are hazards that require
immediate attention.
Q13. A nurse is caring for a client who is confused. Which intervention promotes safety?
A. Keep the environment well-lit and free of hazards
B. Leave sharp objects within reach
, C. Lock the client in the room
D. Remove the call light
Answer: A
Rationale: A well-lit, hazard-free environment promotes safety. Sharp objects, locking the client in, and removing the call light are
unsafe.
Q14. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. Which action is part of the rights of medication administration?
A. Right client, drug, dose, route, time, and documentation
B. Right room number
C. Right to skip documentation
D. Right to administer without checking allergies
Answer: A
Rationale: The rights include client, drug, dose, route, time, documentation, and reason. Room number is not a right, and
documentation and allergy checks are required.
Q15. A nurse is providing teaching about a restraint-free environment. Which action is appropriate?
A. Use alternatives such as bed alarms and frequent rounding
B. Apply restraints routinely for safety
C. Use restraints without an order
D. Restrain the client for staff convenience
Answer: A
Rationale: Restraint-free care uses alternatives like bed alarms, frequent rounding, and supervision. Restraints require an order,
are a last resort, and are never for staff convenience.
Q16. A nurse is performing hand hygiene. Which action is correct?
A. Wash for at least 20 seconds with soap and water or use alcohol-based rub
B. Wash for 5 seconds
C. Skip hand hygiene if gloves were worn
D. Only wash when hands are visibly soiled
Answer: A
Rationale: Hand hygiene should last at least 20 seconds or use an alcohol-based rub. It is required even after removing gloves
and when hands are not visibly soiled.
Q17. A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions. Which PPE is required?
A. Gloves and gown
B. N95 respirator
C. Face shield only
D. Surgical mask only
Answer: A
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves and a gown. An N95 is for airborne, and a surgical mask is for droplet precautions.
Q18. A nurse is caring for a client on airborne precautions. Which PPE is required?
A. N95 respirator in a negative-pressure room
B. Gloves and gown only
C. Surgical mask
D. Face shield
Answer: A
Rationale: Airborne precautions (TB, measles, varicella) require an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room. Gloves/gown
are contact, and a surgical mask is droplet.
Q19. A nurse is caring for a client on droplet precautions. Which PPE is required?
A. Surgical mask
B. N95 respirator
C. Gloves and gown only
D. No PPE
Answer: A
Rationale: Droplet precautions (influenza, meningitis, pertussis) require a surgical mask within 3 feet. An N95 is airborne, and
gloves/gown are contact.
Q20. A nurse is providing teaching about standard precautions. Which statement is correct?
A. Treat all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious
, B. Only wear gloves for visibly bloody procedures
C. Standard precautions apply only to diagnosed infections
D. Standard precautions are optional
Answer: A
Rationale: Standard precautions apply to all clients and treat blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions as potentially
infectious. Gloves are worn whenever contact is possible.
Q21. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action maintains sterile technique?
A. Clean the meatus from the meatus outward
B. Let the catheter touch the bed linens
C. Reuse the lubricant after touching it
D. Open the kit and place it on the bed
Answer: A
Rationale: Cleaning from the meatus outward prevents contamination. The sterile field must stay dry and above waist level, and
nothing nonsterile should touch the catheter.
Q22. A nurse is performing a sterile dressing change. Which action indicates a break in sterile technique?
A. Reaching across the sterile field
B. Holding sterile objects above waist level
C. Keeping the field in view
D. Placing the field on a dry surface
Answer: A
Rationale: Reaching across a sterile field contaminates it. Sterile objects must stay above waist level, the field must remain in
view, and the field should be placed on a dry surface.
Q23. A nurse is providing teaching about the prevention of catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI). Which action is correct?
A. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder
B. Hang the bag at the level of the bed
C. Disconnect the tubing frequently
D. Let the bag touch the floor
Answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the drainage bag below the bladder prevents backflow and reduces CAUTI risk. The bag should not touch the
floor, and the system should remain closed.
Q24. A nurse is caring for a client with a wound infection. Which finding indicates infection?
A. Purulent drainage with redness and warmth
B. Pink granulation tissue
C. Serous drainage
D. Clean approximated edges
Answer: A
Rationale: Purulent drainage, redness, and warmth indicate infection. Pink granulation tissue, serous drainage, and clean edges
indicate healing.
Q25. A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. Vaccines help prevent communicable diseases
B. Vaccines cause the disease they prevent
C. Immunizations are only for children
D. I should avoid vaccines if I have a cold
Answer: A
Rationale: Vaccines stimulate immunity to prevent communicable diseases. They do not cause the disease, are for all ages, and
most minor illnesses are not contraindications.
Questions
Comprehensive practice set covering all ATI Fundamentals topics at medium difficulty. Includes Safety, Infection,
Assessment, Med Admin, Fluids/Electrolytes, Perioperative, Wound, Mobility, Nutrition, Elimination, Oxygenation,
Pain, Sleep, Hygiene, Documentation, Legal/Ethical, Communication, and Teaching.
Part 1: Practice Questions
Q1. A nurse is orienting a new employee on the unit. Which action by the nurse demonstrates a culture of safety?
A. Reporting all near-miss errors without fear of punishment
B. Blaming staff for errors to prevent recurrence
C. Documenting errors only if harm occurred
D. Avoiding incident reports to protect the unit's statistics
Answer: A
Rationale: A culture of safety encourages reporting near-misses without punishment to identify system issues. Blaming staff,
documenting only harmful errors, and avoiding reports undermine safety.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for falls. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Keep the call light within the client's reach
B. Place the bed in the highest position
C. Keep all four side rails up at all times
D. Encourage the client to ambulate alone
Answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the call light within reach allows the client to request assistance. The bed should be low, side rails used per
policy (not all four up as a restraint), and at-risk clients should not ambulate alone.
Q3. A nurse is using a fire extinguisher on a small fire. Which acronym guides the use of a fire extinguisher?
A. PASS
B. RACE
C. ABC
D. SBAR
Answer: A
Rationale: PASS stands for Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep. RACE is for fire response (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish). ABC is
airway/breathing/circulation. SBAR is communication.
Q4. A nurse witnesses another nurse preparing to administer the wrong medication. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Stop the nurse and verify the correct medication
B. Allow the administration and document it
C. Report the nurse to the manager after the fact
D. Ignore the situation because it is not the nurse's client
Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse must intervene immediately to prevent harm. Allowing the error, delaying reporting, or ignoring the situation
violates safety and ethical standards.
Q5. A nurse is preparing to transfer a client from the bed to a stretcher. Which action prevents injury?
A. Lock the wheels on the bed and stretcher
B. Transfer the client alone without assistance
C. Pull the client by the arms
D. Twist the nurse's body while lifting
Answer: A
Rationale: Locking wheels prevents movement during transfer. Transferring alone, pulling by the arms, and twisting increase injury
risk to both client and nurse.
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client who has a seizure. Which action is a priority during the seizure?
A. Protect the client's head and turn the client to the side
B. Insert a tongue blade into the mouth
C. Restrain the client's limbs
, D. Leave the client to get help
Answer: A
Rationale: Protecting the head and turning to the side maintains airway and prevents injury. Tongue blades, restraints, and leaving
the client are unsafe.
Q7. A nurse is teaching a client about home safety. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. I will install grab bars in the bathroom
B. I will keep loose rugs on the floor
C. I will use a step stool to reach high shelves
D. I will leave cords across walkways
Answer: A
Rationale: Grab bars reduce fall risk. Loose rugs, step stools, and cords across walkways increase fall risk.
Q8. A nurse is reviewing incident reports. Which finding indicates a need for staff education?
A. Multiple medication errors involving similar-sounding drugs
B. No incident reports filed for a month
C. Reports filed only for client falls
D. Reports filed only by new staff
Answer: A
Rationale: Multiple similar errors suggest a system issue (e.g., look-alike drugs) requiring education. No reports may indicate
underreporting. Limiting reports to falls or new staff is not comprehensive.
Q9. A nurse is caring for a client with a latex allergy. Which action is appropriate?
A. Use latex-free gloves and equipment
B. Use latex gloves but change them frequently
C. Place the client in a private room only
D. Avoid using any gloves
Answer: A
Rationale: Latex-free gloves and equipment prevent allergic reactions. Latex gloves should be avoided entirely. A private room is
not required, and gloves are still needed for standard precautions.
Q10. A nurse is prioritizing care for four clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
A. A client with sudden shortness of breath
B. A client requesting pain medication
C. A client needing discharge teaching
D. A client with a low-grade fever
Answer: A
Rationale: Shortness of breath is an ABC priority (airway/breathing). Pain, discharge teaching, and low-grade fever are lower
priorities.
Q11. A nurse is using restraints on a client. Which action is required?
A. Obtain a provider order and monitor the client frequently
B. Apply restraints without an order in an emergency only
C. Leave restraints on for 24 hours
D. Use restraints for staff convenience
Answer: A
Rationale: Restraints require a provider order, frequent monitoring, and are a last resort. They are never for staff convenience and
must be removed as soon as possible.
Q12. A nurse is teaching a client about electrical safety at home. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. I will not use electrical devices near water
B. I will use frayed cords if they still work
C. I will overload outlets to save space
D. I will ignore sparks from outlets
Answer: A
Rationale: Electrical devices should not be used near water. Frayed cords, overloaded outlets, and sparks are hazards that require
immediate attention.
Q13. A nurse is caring for a client who is confused. Which intervention promotes safety?
A. Keep the environment well-lit and free of hazards
B. Leave sharp objects within reach
, C. Lock the client in the room
D. Remove the call light
Answer: A
Rationale: A well-lit, hazard-free environment promotes safety. Sharp objects, locking the client in, and removing the call light are
unsafe.
Q14. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. Which action is part of the rights of medication administration?
A. Right client, drug, dose, route, time, and documentation
B. Right room number
C. Right to skip documentation
D. Right to administer without checking allergies
Answer: A
Rationale: The rights include client, drug, dose, route, time, documentation, and reason. Room number is not a right, and
documentation and allergy checks are required.
Q15. A nurse is providing teaching about a restraint-free environment. Which action is appropriate?
A. Use alternatives such as bed alarms and frequent rounding
B. Apply restraints routinely for safety
C. Use restraints without an order
D. Restrain the client for staff convenience
Answer: A
Rationale: Restraint-free care uses alternatives like bed alarms, frequent rounding, and supervision. Restraints require an order,
are a last resort, and are never for staff convenience.
Q16. A nurse is performing hand hygiene. Which action is correct?
A. Wash for at least 20 seconds with soap and water or use alcohol-based rub
B. Wash for 5 seconds
C. Skip hand hygiene if gloves were worn
D. Only wash when hands are visibly soiled
Answer: A
Rationale: Hand hygiene should last at least 20 seconds or use an alcohol-based rub. It is required even after removing gloves
and when hands are not visibly soiled.
Q17. A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions. Which PPE is required?
A. Gloves and gown
B. N95 respirator
C. Face shield only
D. Surgical mask only
Answer: A
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves and a gown. An N95 is for airborne, and a surgical mask is for droplet precautions.
Q18. A nurse is caring for a client on airborne precautions. Which PPE is required?
A. N95 respirator in a negative-pressure room
B. Gloves and gown only
C. Surgical mask
D. Face shield
Answer: A
Rationale: Airborne precautions (TB, measles, varicella) require an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room. Gloves/gown
are contact, and a surgical mask is droplet.
Q19. A nurse is caring for a client on droplet precautions. Which PPE is required?
A. Surgical mask
B. N95 respirator
C. Gloves and gown only
D. No PPE
Answer: A
Rationale: Droplet precautions (influenza, meningitis, pertussis) require a surgical mask within 3 feet. An N95 is airborne, and
gloves/gown are contact.
Q20. A nurse is providing teaching about standard precautions. Which statement is correct?
A. Treat all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious
, B. Only wear gloves for visibly bloody procedures
C. Standard precautions apply only to diagnosed infections
D. Standard precautions are optional
Answer: A
Rationale: Standard precautions apply to all clients and treat blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions as potentially
infectious. Gloves are worn whenever contact is possible.
Q21. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action maintains sterile technique?
A. Clean the meatus from the meatus outward
B. Let the catheter touch the bed linens
C. Reuse the lubricant after touching it
D. Open the kit and place it on the bed
Answer: A
Rationale: Cleaning from the meatus outward prevents contamination. The sterile field must stay dry and above waist level, and
nothing nonsterile should touch the catheter.
Q22. A nurse is performing a sterile dressing change. Which action indicates a break in sterile technique?
A. Reaching across the sterile field
B. Holding sterile objects above waist level
C. Keeping the field in view
D. Placing the field on a dry surface
Answer: A
Rationale: Reaching across a sterile field contaminates it. Sterile objects must stay above waist level, the field must remain in
view, and the field should be placed on a dry surface.
Q23. A nurse is providing teaching about the prevention of catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI). Which action is correct?
A. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder
B. Hang the bag at the level of the bed
C. Disconnect the tubing frequently
D. Let the bag touch the floor
Answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the drainage bag below the bladder prevents backflow and reduces CAUTI risk. The bag should not touch the
floor, and the system should remain closed.
Q24. A nurse is caring for a client with a wound infection. Which finding indicates infection?
A. Purulent drainage with redness and warmth
B. Pink granulation tissue
C. Serous drainage
D. Clean approximated edges
Answer: A
Rationale: Purulent drainage, redness, and warmth indicate infection. Pink granulation tissue, serous drainage, and clean edges
indicate healing.
Q25. A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. Vaccines help prevent communicable diseases
B. Vaccines cause the disease they prevent
C. Immunizations are only for children
D. I should avoid vaccines if I have a cold
Answer: A
Rationale: Vaccines stimulate immunity to prevent communicable diseases. They do not cause the disease, are for all ages, and
most minor illnesses are not contraindications.
