NUR 6001 FINAL EXAM 3 2026/2027
WITH QUESTIONS AND WELL-
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS |
ALREADY GRADED A+ |
GUARANTEED PASS | NUR 6001
LATEST EXAM
A 52-year-old female complains of discharge from one of her breasts. There is no
pain, no mass, and no skin changes. The physical examination is normal. When
putting pressure on the affected breast, the nipple expresses a small amount of
thick, white discharge. These findings are consistent with:
A. Duct ectasia
B. Mastitis
C. Fibroadenoma
D. Fibrocystic breasts - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Duct ectasia
,When performing a dipstick test on a patient's urine sample, a positive leukocyte
esterase and
nitrite is indicative of:
A. Microscopic hematuria
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Calculi in the urine
D. Possible bladder tumor - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Urinary Tract Infection
An intravenous pyelogram should not be performed if serum creatinine is:
A. Less than 1.5
B. Greater than 1.0
C. Greater than 1.6
D. Less than 1.0 - CORRECT ANSWER-C.Greater than 1.6
Your 55-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with
complaints of sudden development of severe right-sided, colicky lower abdominal
pain. He cannot sit still on the examining table. The patient has previously been in
good health. On physical examination, there are no signs of peritoneal
inflammation. A urine sample reveals hematuria and crystalluria. Which is the next
diagnostic test that should be done immediately?
A. Ultrasound of the abdomen
B. Abdominal x-ray
C. Digital rectal examination
D. Spiral CT scan - CORRECT ANSWER-D. Spiral CT scan
The most common complication of an untreated urinary obstruction due to a
ureteral calculus is:
A. Hydronephrosis
, B. Renal artery stenosis
C. Ureteral rupture
D. Kidney mass - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Hydronephrosis
A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the
back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On
physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right
costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:
A. Lower urinary tract infection
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Hydronephrosis - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Pyelonephritis
On a physical examination for employment, a 45-year-old male shows no
significant findings and takes no medications. Past medical history and surgery are
unremarkable. On urinalysis, hematuria is present. The urinalysis is repeated on
another day and still reveals microscopic hematuria. It is important to recognize
that painless hematuria can be diagnostic of:
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Bladder cancer
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Pyelonephritis - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Bladder cancer
On DRE, you note that a 45-year-old patient has a firm, smooth, non-tender but
asymmetrically shaped prostate. The patient has no symptoms and has a normal
urinalysis. The patient's PSA is within normal limits for the patient's age. The
clinician should:
A. Refer the patient for transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy
B. Obtain an abdominal x-ray of kidneys, ureter, and bladder
WITH QUESTIONS AND WELL-
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS |
ALREADY GRADED A+ |
GUARANTEED PASS | NUR 6001
LATEST EXAM
A 52-year-old female complains of discharge from one of her breasts. There is no
pain, no mass, and no skin changes. The physical examination is normal. When
putting pressure on the affected breast, the nipple expresses a small amount of
thick, white discharge. These findings are consistent with:
A. Duct ectasia
B. Mastitis
C. Fibroadenoma
D. Fibrocystic breasts - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Duct ectasia
,When performing a dipstick test on a patient's urine sample, a positive leukocyte
esterase and
nitrite is indicative of:
A. Microscopic hematuria
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Calculi in the urine
D. Possible bladder tumor - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Urinary Tract Infection
An intravenous pyelogram should not be performed if serum creatinine is:
A. Less than 1.5
B. Greater than 1.0
C. Greater than 1.6
D. Less than 1.0 - CORRECT ANSWER-C.Greater than 1.6
Your 55-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with
complaints of sudden development of severe right-sided, colicky lower abdominal
pain. He cannot sit still on the examining table. The patient has previously been in
good health. On physical examination, there are no signs of peritoneal
inflammation. A urine sample reveals hematuria and crystalluria. Which is the next
diagnostic test that should be done immediately?
A. Ultrasound of the abdomen
B. Abdominal x-ray
C. Digital rectal examination
D. Spiral CT scan - CORRECT ANSWER-D. Spiral CT scan
The most common complication of an untreated urinary obstruction due to a
ureteral calculus is:
A. Hydronephrosis
, B. Renal artery stenosis
C. Ureteral rupture
D. Kidney mass - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Hydronephrosis
A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the
back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On
physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right
costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:
A. Lower urinary tract infection
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Hydronephrosis - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Pyelonephritis
On a physical examination for employment, a 45-year-old male shows no
significant findings and takes no medications. Past medical history and surgery are
unremarkable. On urinalysis, hematuria is present. The urinalysis is repeated on
another day and still reveals microscopic hematuria. It is important to recognize
that painless hematuria can be diagnostic of:
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Bladder cancer
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Pyelonephritis - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Bladder cancer
On DRE, you note that a 45-year-old patient has a firm, smooth, non-tender but
asymmetrically shaped prostate. The patient has no symptoms and has a normal
urinalysis. The patient's PSA is within normal limits for the patient's age. The
clinician should:
A. Refer the patient for transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy
B. Obtain an abdominal x-ray of kidneys, ureter, and bladder
