NUR 6001 LATEST EXAM 3
2026/2027 WITH QUESTIONS AND
EXPERT-VERIFIED CORRECT
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED
A+ | GUARANTEED PASS
Your patient is a 36-year-old woman who complains of milky discharge from both
her breasts, episodes of headache, and menstrual irregularity. The patient is on no
medications. Upon examination, there are no significant findings, and the patient is
not pregnant, breastfeeding, or in the postpartum period. It is important to:
A. Order prolactin level
B. Obtain an MRI of head
C. Have the patient keep a menstrual cycle diary
D. Refer the patient for mammogram - ANSWER-A. Order a prolactin level
Bloody breast discharge is associated with which of the following?
A. Bleeding disorder such as von Willebrand disease
,B. Malignancy
C. Excessive non-steroidal anti-inflammatories
D. AandC - ANSWER-B. Malignancy
Your patient is a 64-year-old female who presents with complaints of a red, scaly
rash on her nipple and areola of one breast. It has been present for a few months.
There is no mass or nipple discharge. You should be suspicious of:
A. Contact dermatitis
B. Mastitis
C. Paget's disease
D. Eczema - ANSWER-C. Pagets Disease
A 12-year-old boy is brought into the clinic by his mother. The teen boy is
embarrassed because he has developed breast tissue and would like to know if
there is any treatment. The physical examination reveals early stages of puberty,
otherwise it is normal. This presentation is:
A. Associated with a high rate of malignancy
B. Most often due to altered hormonal levels in puberty
C. Commonly indicative of pituitary tumor triggered by puberty
D. Too dense for a mammogram and requires biopsy - ANSWER-B
A condition that increases risk of breast cancer in a male is:
A. Pseudogynecomastia
B. BRCA1 and 2
C. Klinefelter's syndrome
D. BandC - ANSWER-C. Klinefelter's syndrome
, A 52-year-old female complains of discharge from one of her breasts. There is no
pain, no mass, and no skin changes. The physical examination is normal. When
putting pressure on the affected breast, the nipple expresses a small amount of
thick, white discharge. These findings are consistent with:
A. Duct ectasia
B. Mastitis
C. Fibroadenoma
D. Fibrocystic breasts - ANSWER-A. Duct ectasia
When performing a dipstick test on a patient's urine sample, a positive leukocyte
esterase and
nitrite is indicative of:
A. Microscopic hematuria
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Calculi in the urine
D. Possible bladder tumor - ANSWER-B. Urinary Tract Infection
An intravenous pyelogram should not be performed if serum creatinine is:
A. Less than 1.5
B. Greater than 1.0
C. Greater than 1.6
D. Less than 1.0 - ANSWER-C.Greater than 1.6
Your 55-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with
complaints of sudden development of severe right-sided, colicky lower abdominal
pain. He cannot sit still on the examining table. The patient has previously been in
good health. On physical examination, there are no signs of peritoneal
2026/2027 WITH QUESTIONS AND
EXPERT-VERIFIED CORRECT
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED
A+ | GUARANTEED PASS
Your patient is a 36-year-old woman who complains of milky discharge from both
her breasts, episodes of headache, and menstrual irregularity. The patient is on no
medications. Upon examination, there are no significant findings, and the patient is
not pregnant, breastfeeding, or in the postpartum period. It is important to:
A. Order prolactin level
B. Obtain an MRI of head
C. Have the patient keep a menstrual cycle diary
D. Refer the patient for mammogram - ANSWER-A. Order a prolactin level
Bloody breast discharge is associated with which of the following?
A. Bleeding disorder such as von Willebrand disease
,B. Malignancy
C. Excessive non-steroidal anti-inflammatories
D. AandC - ANSWER-B. Malignancy
Your patient is a 64-year-old female who presents with complaints of a red, scaly
rash on her nipple and areola of one breast. It has been present for a few months.
There is no mass or nipple discharge. You should be suspicious of:
A. Contact dermatitis
B. Mastitis
C. Paget's disease
D. Eczema - ANSWER-C. Pagets Disease
A 12-year-old boy is brought into the clinic by his mother. The teen boy is
embarrassed because he has developed breast tissue and would like to know if
there is any treatment. The physical examination reveals early stages of puberty,
otherwise it is normal. This presentation is:
A. Associated with a high rate of malignancy
B. Most often due to altered hormonal levels in puberty
C. Commonly indicative of pituitary tumor triggered by puberty
D. Too dense for a mammogram and requires biopsy - ANSWER-B
A condition that increases risk of breast cancer in a male is:
A. Pseudogynecomastia
B. BRCA1 and 2
C. Klinefelter's syndrome
D. BandC - ANSWER-C. Klinefelter's syndrome
, A 52-year-old female complains of discharge from one of her breasts. There is no
pain, no mass, and no skin changes. The physical examination is normal. When
putting pressure on the affected breast, the nipple expresses a small amount of
thick, white discharge. These findings are consistent with:
A. Duct ectasia
B. Mastitis
C. Fibroadenoma
D. Fibrocystic breasts - ANSWER-A. Duct ectasia
When performing a dipstick test on a patient's urine sample, a positive leukocyte
esterase and
nitrite is indicative of:
A. Microscopic hematuria
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Calculi in the urine
D. Possible bladder tumor - ANSWER-B. Urinary Tract Infection
An intravenous pyelogram should not be performed if serum creatinine is:
A. Less than 1.5
B. Greater than 1.0
C. Greater than 1.6
D. Less than 1.0 - ANSWER-C.Greater than 1.6
Your 55-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with
complaints of sudden development of severe right-sided, colicky lower abdominal
pain. He cannot sit still on the examining table. The patient has previously been in
good health. On physical examination, there are no signs of peritoneal
