Exam 4: NSG3280 / NSG 3280 (Latest Update Update)
Pathophysiology for Nurses I | Review Questions and Answers |
Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Solutions) - Galen
Question 1
What is a hydrocele?
A) Inflammation of the testicles
B) Scrotal swelling caused by a collection of fluid
C) Twisting of the spermatic cord
D) Infection of the epididymis
Answer: B) Scrotal swelling caused by a collection of fluid
Explanation: A hydrocele is an accumulation of serous fluid in the tunica
vaginalis or along the spermatic cord, causing painless scrotal swelling. It
is typically benign and often resolves spontaneously in infants. **
Question 2
When should a hydrocele be removed?
A) Immediately upon diagnosis
B) Only if it is bilateral
C) Only if the patient finds it completely unbearable
D) When it exceeds 5 cm in diameter
,Answer: C) Only if the patient finds it completely unbearable
Explanation: Surgical removal of a hydrocele is generally considered a
cosmetic procedure and is only performed if the patient experiences
significant discomfort or finds the swelling unbearable. Most hydroceles
are benign and require no intervention. **
Question 3
______ is the inflammation of the testicles typically as a response to
______ such as ______.
A) Epididymitis; infection; Chlamydia
B) Orchitis; infection; mumps
C) Prostatitis; inflammation; E. coli
D) Balanitis; infection; yeast
Answer: B) Orchitis; infection; mumps
Explanation: Orchitis is inflammation of the testicles, most commonly
caused by the mumps virus, particularly in post-pubertal males. Bacterial
orchitis can also occur, often secondary to epididymitis. **
Question 4
A 25-year-old male presents with a painless, indurated ulcer on the shaft
of his penis and nontender inguinal lymphadenopathy. Which stage of
syphilis is the patient most likely experiencing?
,A) Secondary syphilis
B) Latent syphilis
C) Primary syphilis
D) Tertiary syphilis
Answer: C) Primary syphilis
Explanation: Primary syphilis is characterized by a chancre—a painless
ulcerated lesion at the site of inoculation—appearing 10–90 days after
exposure to Treponema pallidum. Lymphadenopathy may be present.
Secondary syphilis involves a systemic rash; tertiary involves gummas
and neurosyphilis. **
Question 5
A patient diagnosed with gonorrhea develops a purulent urethral
discharge and dysuria. The pathophysiology of these symptoms is
primarily due to:
A) Immune complex deposition in the urethral epithelium
B) Treponema pallidum destruction of terminal arterioles
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae invasion of columnar epithelium and release of
inflammatory mediators
D) Chlamydia trachomatis intracellular replication in the prostate
Answer: C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae invasion of columnar epithelium
and release of inflammatory mediators
, Explanation: Gonococci attach to and invade mucosal epithelial cells,
triggering a robust inflammatory response with neutrophil infiltration,
resulting in purulent exudate, dysuria, and discharge. Syphilis is caused
by Treponema pallidum. **
Question 6
A 22-year-old female with Chlamydia trachomatis cervicitis is at greatest
risk for which complication?
A) Bartholin cyst
B) Pelvic inflammatory disease and subsequent tubal factor infertility
C) Uterine fibroids
D) Ovarian torsion
Answer: B) Pelvic inflammatory disease and subsequent tubal factor
infertility
Explanation: Chlamydia ascends from the cervix to the upper genital
tract, causing salpingitis, scarring, and adhesions leading to infertility and
ectopic pregnancy. This is the most significant long-term complication of
untreated chlamydial infection. **
Question 7
Pathophysiology for Nurses I | Review Questions and Answers |
Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Solutions) - Galen
Question 1
What is a hydrocele?
A) Inflammation of the testicles
B) Scrotal swelling caused by a collection of fluid
C) Twisting of the spermatic cord
D) Infection of the epididymis
Answer: B) Scrotal swelling caused by a collection of fluid
Explanation: A hydrocele is an accumulation of serous fluid in the tunica
vaginalis or along the spermatic cord, causing painless scrotal swelling. It
is typically benign and often resolves spontaneously in infants. **
Question 2
When should a hydrocele be removed?
A) Immediately upon diagnosis
B) Only if it is bilateral
C) Only if the patient finds it completely unbearable
D) When it exceeds 5 cm in diameter
,Answer: C) Only if the patient finds it completely unbearable
Explanation: Surgical removal of a hydrocele is generally considered a
cosmetic procedure and is only performed if the patient experiences
significant discomfort or finds the swelling unbearable. Most hydroceles
are benign and require no intervention. **
Question 3
______ is the inflammation of the testicles typically as a response to
______ such as ______.
A) Epididymitis; infection; Chlamydia
B) Orchitis; infection; mumps
C) Prostatitis; inflammation; E. coli
D) Balanitis; infection; yeast
Answer: B) Orchitis; infection; mumps
Explanation: Orchitis is inflammation of the testicles, most commonly
caused by the mumps virus, particularly in post-pubertal males. Bacterial
orchitis can also occur, often secondary to epididymitis. **
Question 4
A 25-year-old male presents with a painless, indurated ulcer on the shaft
of his penis and nontender inguinal lymphadenopathy. Which stage of
syphilis is the patient most likely experiencing?
,A) Secondary syphilis
B) Latent syphilis
C) Primary syphilis
D) Tertiary syphilis
Answer: C) Primary syphilis
Explanation: Primary syphilis is characterized by a chancre—a painless
ulcerated lesion at the site of inoculation—appearing 10–90 days after
exposure to Treponema pallidum. Lymphadenopathy may be present.
Secondary syphilis involves a systemic rash; tertiary involves gummas
and neurosyphilis. **
Question 5
A patient diagnosed with gonorrhea develops a purulent urethral
discharge and dysuria. The pathophysiology of these symptoms is
primarily due to:
A) Immune complex deposition in the urethral epithelium
B) Treponema pallidum destruction of terminal arterioles
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae invasion of columnar epithelium and release of
inflammatory mediators
D) Chlamydia trachomatis intracellular replication in the prostate
Answer: C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae invasion of columnar epithelium
and release of inflammatory mediators
, Explanation: Gonococci attach to and invade mucosal epithelial cells,
triggering a robust inflammatory response with neutrophil infiltration,
resulting in purulent exudate, dysuria, and discharge. Syphilis is caused
by Treponema pallidum. **
Question 6
A 22-year-old female with Chlamydia trachomatis cervicitis is at greatest
risk for which complication?
A) Bartholin cyst
B) Pelvic inflammatory disease and subsequent tubal factor infertility
C) Uterine fibroids
D) Ovarian torsion
Answer: B) Pelvic inflammatory disease and subsequent tubal factor
infertility
Explanation: Chlamydia ascends from the cervix to the upper genital
tract, causing salpingitis, scarring, and adhesions leading to infertility and
ectopic pregnancy. This is the most significant long-term complication of
untreated chlamydial infection. **
Question 7
