NURSING PRACTICE II L AT E S T 2 0 2 0 2 7 U P D AT E
NSG 3130 Exam 4
Fundamental Concepts & Skills for
Nursing Practice II Guide
Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct
100 7 100% Grade A
T O TA L Q U E S T I O N S CONTENT SECTIONS VERIFIED SOLUTIONS EXAM QUALITY
EXAM CONTENT ARCHITECTURE
1 Safety, Infection Control, and Emergency Preparedness Q1–15
2 Health Assessment, Vital Signs, and Pain Management Q16–30
3 Basic Care and Comfort Q31–45
4 Medication Administration and Parenteral Therapies Q46–60
5 Nursing Process, Clinical Judgment, and Prioritization Q61–75
6 Oxygenation, Fluid/Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance Q76–90
7 Perioperative Nursing, Wound Care, and End-of-Life Care Q91–100
FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS & SKILLS
Nursing Practice II Course
VERIFIED
Comprehensive Review — 2026/2027 Standards
,NSG 3130 Exam 4 — Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice II Latest 2026/2027 Update
NSG 3130 / NSG 3130 — Exam 4
Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice II Guide | Questions & Answers |
Grade A | 100% Correct
Latest 2026/2027 Update
Exam Overview & Instructions
Volume & Structure: This examination contains exactly 100 multiple-choice questions distributed
across seven (7) integrated content sections aligned with NSG 3130 Fundamental Concepts and Skills
for Nursing Practice II course objectives. Section 1 (Q1–15) covers Safety, Infection Control, and
Emergency Preparedness; Section 2 (Q16–30) covers Health Assessment, Vital Signs, and Pain
Management; Section 3 (Q31–45) covers Basic Care and Comfort; Section 4 (Q46–60) covers
Medication Administration and Parenteral Therapies; Section 5 (Q61–75) covers Nursing Process,
Clinical Judgment, and Prioritization; Section 6 (Q76–90) covers Oxygenation, Fluid/Electrolyte, and
Acid-Base Balance; Section 7 (Q91–100) covers Perioperative Nursing, Wound Care, and End-of-Life
Care.
Cognitive Level Distribution: Questions are calibrated to Bloom's cognitive taxonomy:
approximately 25% recall (knowledge/comprehension), 55% application (apply concepts to clinical
scenarios), and 20% analysis (synthesize data, prioritize, evaluate). This distribution mirrors
nursing fundamentals course cognitive demand and reflects foundational nursing competency
expectations.
Item Style: Approximately 75% of items are scenario-based requiring application of clinical
judgment to prioritize care, recognize complications, perform safe nursing procedures, and select
appropriate interventions. The remaining 25% are direct recall or skill identification items
assessing foundational knowledge. Each item has four options (A–D) with one best answer
identified as [CORRECT].
Rationale Format: Each item includes a 2–4 sentence rationale that explains why the correct option
is correct AND why the other options are incorrect. Rationales integrate nursing fundamentals,
safety, clinical judgment, and evidence-based practice principles. Distractors reflect common NSG
3130 Exam 4 pitfalls including prioritization errors, infection control mistakes, medication
calculation errors, assessment misinterpretation, delegation confusion, documentation errors, and
clinical judgment failures.
How to Use This Exam: Simulate exam testing conditions — answer all items before reviewing
rationales. Use the rationales as a study guide for content gaps. Pay particular attention to safety and
infection control principles, nursing process application, medication calculation accuracy, and
prioritization frameworks (ABC, Maslow, least restrictive) — these are high-yield competencies for
NSG 3130 Exam 4 success and fundamental nursing practice.
Grade A — 100% Correct Verified Solutions Page 1
,NSG 3130 Exam 4 — Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice II Latest 2026/2027 Update
Section 1: Safety, Infection Control, and Emergency Preparedness
Patient Safety, Standard/Transmission-Based Precautions, PPE, Error Prevention, & Emergency Response —
Questions 1-15
Q1: A nurse is admitting a 78-year-old patient with confusion and a history of falls. Which
intervention is the highest priority to prevent falls during the hospitalization?
A. Place the bed in the lowest position with side rails up and ensure the call light is within
reach [CORRECT]
B. Restrict the patient to bed rest and use bilateral wrist restraints to prevent wandering
C. Keep the room dark to promote sleep and reduce agitation
D. Allow the patient to ambulate independently to maintain muscle strength
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The bed in lowest position with side rails up (per facility policy) and call light within reach
are foundational fall-prevention measures that allow the patient to summon help before attempting
to mobilize. Restraints are a LAST-resort intervention requiring a provider order and strict
documentation, and they can actually increase fall-related injuries. A dark room increases fall risk;
appropriate low-level lighting is preferred. Independent ambulation is unsafe for a confused patient
with fall history.
Q2: When considering physical restraints for a patient who keeps pulling at their
endotracheal tube, which principle reflects the least restrictive intervention approach?
A. Apply wrist restraints immediately since airway safety is at risk
B. Try alternative measures first: 1:1 sitter, sedation as ordered, mitten restraints, and
reassessment of tube security [CORRECT]
C. Soft wrist restraints applied continuously for the duration of intubation
D. Request an order for bilateral limb restraints and chemical sedation PRN
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The least restrictive intervention principle requires trying alternatives before physical
restraints: 1:1 observation, mitten restraints (which prevent grasping but allow some hand
movement), chemical sedation per provider order, and securing the tube with appropriate fixation
devices. Restraints require a provider order, time-limited renewal (typically 4 hours for adults, 2
hours for ages 9-17, 1 hour under 9), and ongoing assessment of circulation, skin integrity, and patient
safety.
Q3: A nurse observes a fire in the patient wastebasket. Using the RACE acronym, what is the
correct sequence of actions?
A. Rescue anyone in danger, Activate the alarm, Confine the fire, Extinguish if safe
[CORRECT]
B. Report to the charge nurse, Alert the fire department, Carry patients out, Exit the building
C. Run, Alert, Contain, Extinguish
D. Rescue self first, Alarm others, Call 911, Extinguish the fire
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RACE guides fire response: R — Rescue anyone in immediate danger; A — Activate the fire
alarm (pull station or call code); C — Confine the fire by closing doors and windows; E — Extinguish
Grade A — 100% Correct Verified Solutions Page 2
, NSG 3130 Exam 4 — Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice II Latest 2026/2027 Update
the fire only if it is small, contained, and you have a clear escape route. Personal safety comes first;
closing doors prevents fire and smoke spread; only attempt extinguishing small fires with the proper
extinguisher and a clear exit path behind you.
Q4: When using a fire extinguisher, the nurse remembers the PASS acronym. What does the
second 'S' in PASS represent?
A. Stand back at least 20 feet from the fire
B. Sweep the extinguisher side to side at the base of the fire [CORRECT]
C. Spray the entire area to prevent rekindling
D. Squeeze the handle slowly to test the pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PASS: P — Pull the safety pin; A — Aim at the BASE of the fire (not the flames); S — Squeeze
the handle to discharge; S — Sweep side to side at the base until extinguished. Aiming at the flames is
ineffective because the fuel source continues to burn. The nurse must maintain an unobstructed exit
path behind them while operating the extinguisher.
Q5: A patient is having a tonic-clonic seizure in bed. Which nursing action is appropriate
during the active seizure?
A. Insert a padded tongue blade between the patient's teeth to prevent tongue biting
B. Loosen restrictive clothing, turn the patient to a lateral position if possible, and protect
the head from injury without restraining movements [CORRECT]
C. Restrain the patient's extremities to prevent injury
D. Administer oral fluids to prevent dehydration during the seizure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure: do NOT insert anything into the mouth (causes dental/airway trauma and
the patient cannot swallow their tongue), do NOT restrain (causes musculoskeletal injury), loosen
restrictive clothing, protect the head with padding, turn to lateral position if possible to maintain
airway patency and allow secretions to drain, and time the seizure. After the seizure, assess airway,
breathing, circulation, reorient the patient, and document the seizure characteristics.
Q6: A patient on contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile infection requires a chest
X-ray. The transport technician arrives to take the patient to the radiology department.
Which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?
A. Have the patient wear a surgical mask during transport
B. Ensure the patient performs hand hygiene, wears a clean gown over clothing, and alert
radiology staff to clean equipment after use with a C. diff-compatible disinfectant (bleach)
[CORRECT]
C. Cancel the X-ray because the patient cannot leave the room
D. Send the patient in a wheelchair without special precautions because the procedure is brief
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile produces spores that are NOT killed by alcohol-based hand sanitizers — soap
and water handwashing is required. Contact precautions require the patient to wear a clean gown
during transport to prevent environmental contamination. Radiology staff must be notified to use a
Grade A — 100% Correct Verified Solutions Page 3
NSG 3130 Exam 4
Fundamental Concepts & Skills for
Nursing Practice II Guide
Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct
100 7 100% Grade A
T O TA L Q U E S T I O N S CONTENT SECTIONS VERIFIED SOLUTIONS EXAM QUALITY
EXAM CONTENT ARCHITECTURE
1 Safety, Infection Control, and Emergency Preparedness Q1–15
2 Health Assessment, Vital Signs, and Pain Management Q16–30
3 Basic Care and Comfort Q31–45
4 Medication Administration and Parenteral Therapies Q46–60
5 Nursing Process, Clinical Judgment, and Prioritization Q61–75
6 Oxygenation, Fluid/Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance Q76–90
7 Perioperative Nursing, Wound Care, and End-of-Life Care Q91–100
FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS & SKILLS
Nursing Practice II Course
VERIFIED
Comprehensive Review — 2026/2027 Standards
,NSG 3130 Exam 4 — Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice II Latest 2026/2027 Update
NSG 3130 / NSG 3130 — Exam 4
Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice II Guide | Questions & Answers |
Grade A | 100% Correct
Latest 2026/2027 Update
Exam Overview & Instructions
Volume & Structure: This examination contains exactly 100 multiple-choice questions distributed
across seven (7) integrated content sections aligned with NSG 3130 Fundamental Concepts and Skills
for Nursing Practice II course objectives. Section 1 (Q1–15) covers Safety, Infection Control, and
Emergency Preparedness; Section 2 (Q16–30) covers Health Assessment, Vital Signs, and Pain
Management; Section 3 (Q31–45) covers Basic Care and Comfort; Section 4 (Q46–60) covers
Medication Administration and Parenteral Therapies; Section 5 (Q61–75) covers Nursing Process,
Clinical Judgment, and Prioritization; Section 6 (Q76–90) covers Oxygenation, Fluid/Electrolyte, and
Acid-Base Balance; Section 7 (Q91–100) covers Perioperative Nursing, Wound Care, and End-of-Life
Care.
Cognitive Level Distribution: Questions are calibrated to Bloom's cognitive taxonomy:
approximately 25% recall (knowledge/comprehension), 55% application (apply concepts to clinical
scenarios), and 20% analysis (synthesize data, prioritize, evaluate). This distribution mirrors
nursing fundamentals course cognitive demand and reflects foundational nursing competency
expectations.
Item Style: Approximately 75% of items are scenario-based requiring application of clinical
judgment to prioritize care, recognize complications, perform safe nursing procedures, and select
appropriate interventions. The remaining 25% are direct recall or skill identification items
assessing foundational knowledge. Each item has four options (A–D) with one best answer
identified as [CORRECT].
Rationale Format: Each item includes a 2–4 sentence rationale that explains why the correct option
is correct AND why the other options are incorrect. Rationales integrate nursing fundamentals,
safety, clinical judgment, and evidence-based practice principles. Distractors reflect common NSG
3130 Exam 4 pitfalls including prioritization errors, infection control mistakes, medication
calculation errors, assessment misinterpretation, delegation confusion, documentation errors, and
clinical judgment failures.
How to Use This Exam: Simulate exam testing conditions — answer all items before reviewing
rationales. Use the rationales as a study guide for content gaps. Pay particular attention to safety and
infection control principles, nursing process application, medication calculation accuracy, and
prioritization frameworks (ABC, Maslow, least restrictive) — these are high-yield competencies for
NSG 3130 Exam 4 success and fundamental nursing practice.
Grade A — 100% Correct Verified Solutions Page 1
,NSG 3130 Exam 4 — Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice II Latest 2026/2027 Update
Section 1: Safety, Infection Control, and Emergency Preparedness
Patient Safety, Standard/Transmission-Based Precautions, PPE, Error Prevention, & Emergency Response —
Questions 1-15
Q1: A nurse is admitting a 78-year-old patient with confusion and a history of falls. Which
intervention is the highest priority to prevent falls during the hospitalization?
A. Place the bed in the lowest position with side rails up and ensure the call light is within
reach [CORRECT]
B. Restrict the patient to bed rest and use bilateral wrist restraints to prevent wandering
C. Keep the room dark to promote sleep and reduce agitation
D. Allow the patient to ambulate independently to maintain muscle strength
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The bed in lowest position with side rails up (per facility policy) and call light within reach
are foundational fall-prevention measures that allow the patient to summon help before attempting
to mobilize. Restraints are a LAST-resort intervention requiring a provider order and strict
documentation, and they can actually increase fall-related injuries. A dark room increases fall risk;
appropriate low-level lighting is preferred. Independent ambulation is unsafe for a confused patient
with fall history.
Q2: When considering physical restraints for a patient who keeps pulling at their
endotracheal tube, which principle reflects the least restrictive intervention approach?
A. Apply wrist restraints immediately since airway safety is at risk
B. Try alternative measures first: 1:1 sitter, sedation as ordered, mitten restraints, and
reassessment of tube security [CORRECT]
C. Soft wrist restraints applied continuously for the duration of intubation
D. Request an order for bilateral limb restraints and chemical sedation PRN
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The least restrictive intervention principle requires trying alternatives before physical
restraints: 1:1 observation, mitten restraints (which prevent grasping but allow some hand
movement), chemical sedation per provider order, and securing the tube with appropriate fixation
devices. Restraints require a provider order, time-limited renewal (typically 4 hours for adults, 2
hours for ages 9-17, 1 hour under 9), and ongoing assessment of circulation, skin integrity, and patient
safety.
Q3: A nurse observes a fire in the patient wastebasket. Using the RACE acronym, what is the
correct sequence of actions?
A. Rescue anyone in danger, Activate the alarm, Confine the fire, Extinguish if safe
[CORRECT]
B. Report to the charge nurse, Alert the fire department, Carry patients out, Exit the building
C. Run, Alert, Contain, Extinguish
D. Rescue self first, Alarm others, Call 911, Extinguish the fire
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RACE guides fire response: R — Rescue anyone in immediate danger; A — Activate the fire
alarm (pull station or call code); C — Confine the fire by closing doors and windows; E — Extinguish
Grade A — 100% Correct Verified Solutions Page 2
, NSG 3130 Exam 4 — Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice II Latest 2026/2027 Update
the fire only if it is small, contained, and you have a clear escape route. Personal safety comes first;
closing doors prevents fire and smoke spread; only attempt extinguishing small fires with the proper
extinguisher and a clear exit path behind you.
Q4: When using a fire extinguisher, the nurse remembers the PASS acronym. What does the
second 'S' in PASS represent?
A. Stand back at least 20 feet from the fire
B. Sweep the extinguisher side to side at the base of the fire [CORRECT]
C. Spray the entire area to prevent rekindling
D. Squeeze the handle slowly to test the pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PASS: P — Pull the safety pin; A — Aim at the BASE of the fire (not the flames); S — Squeeze
the handle to discharge; S — Sweep side to side at the base until extinguished. Aiming at the flames is
ineffective because the fuel source continues to burn. The nurse must maintain an unobstructed exit
path behind them while operating the extinguisher.
Q5: A patient is having a tonic-clonic seizure in bed. Which nursing action is appropriate
during the active seizure?
A. Insert a padded tongue blade between the patient's teeth to prevent tongue biting
B. Loosen restrictive clothing, turn the patient to a lateral position if possible, and protect
the head from injury without restraining movements [CORRECT]
C. Restrain the patient's extremities to prevent injury
D. Administer oral fluids to prevent dehydration during the seizure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure: do NOT insert anything into the mouth (causes dental/airway trauma and
the patient cannot swallow their tongue), do NOT restrain (causes musculoskeletal injury), loosen
restrictive clothing, protect the head with padding, turn to lateral position if possible to maintain
airway patency and allow secretions to drain, and time the seizure. After the seizure, assess airway,
breathing, circulation, reorient the patient, and document the seizure characteristics.
Q6: A patient on contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile infection requires a chest
X-ray. The transport technician arrives to take the patient to the radiology department.
Which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?
A. Have the patient wear a surgical mask during transport
B. Ensure the patient performs hand hygiene, wears a clean gown over clothing, and alert
radiology staff to clean equipment after use with a C. diff-compatible disinfectant (bleach)
[CORRECT]
C. Cancel the X-ray because the patient cannot leave the room
D. Send the patient in a wheelchair without special precautions because the procedure is brief
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile produces spores that are NOT killed by alcohol-based hand sanitizers — soap
and water handwashing is required. Contact precautions require the patient to wear a clean gown
during transport to prevent environmental contamination. Radiology staff must be notified to use a
Grade A — 100% Correct Verified Solutions Page 3
