NUR 5700 POST-LECTURE TEST:
MUSCULOSKELETAL | QUESTIONS & CORRECT
ANSWERS | 2026/2027 UPDATED | NEW!!!
120 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 5700 POST-LECTURE TEST: MUSCULOSKELETAL | QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS | 2026/2027
UPDATED | NEW!!!. It contains 120 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and
testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the
underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 120 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 5700 Post-lecture Musculoskeletal & Correct 2026/2027 Updated NEW
Musculoskeletal Nursing Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Anatomy AND Physiology OF 1-20 Fracture, Appropriate, Arthritis, Finding, Mechanism
THE Musculoskeletal System
Assessment AND Diagnostic 21-40 Fracture, Arthritis, Therapy, Prescribed, Rheumatoid
Tests
Fractures AND Fracture 41-60 Appropriate, Finding, Long-term, Therapy, Acute
Management
Osteoarthritis AND 61-80 Finding, Therapy, Acute, Arthritis, Rather
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Osteoporosis AND Metabolic 81-100 Finding, Osteoporosis, Prescribed, Long-term, Therapy
BONE Diseases
Infections OF THE BONE 101-120 Finding, Osteoporosis, Disease, Laboratory, Chronic
AND Joint
TOTAL 120 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Anatomy AND Physiology OF THE
Musculoskeletal System
Q1.
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4 presents with bone pain and elevated
intact parathyroid hormone (PTH). Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains the
skeletal changes in this patient?
A. Increased osteoclast activity due to B. Decreased calcitriol synthesis leading to
secondary hyperparathyroidism reduced intestinal calcium absorption and
hypocalcemia
C. Direct toxic effect of uremic toxins on D. Increased fibroblast growth factor 23
osteoblasts (FGF23) secretion causing phosphaturia
and osteomalacia
Correct: B - Decreased calcitriol synthesis leading to reduced intestinal calcium
absorption and hypocalcemia
Rationale:In CKD, reduced renal mass decreases calcitriol production, leading to
hypocalcemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. The primary trigger is the deficiency of
active vitamin D, not the direct effect of PTH or uremic toxins.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Increased osteoclast activity is a consequence, not the initiating mechanism.
C. Uremic toxins may contribute but are not the primary cause of skeletal changes.
D. FGF23 is elevated but its main effect is on phosphate excretion, not directly causing
osteomalacia.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 93.
Q2.
A postmenopausal woman has a T-score of -2.8 and a history of fragility fracture. Which
pharmacologic agent is most appropriate as first-line therapy to reduce fracture risk?
A. Alendronate B. Raloxifene
C. Teriparatide D. Calcitonin
Correct: A - Alendronate
Rationale:Bisphosphonates like alendronate are first-line for osteoporosis in postmenopausal
women, reducing vertebral and hip fractures. Teriparatide is reserved for severe cases or
those who fail bisphosphonates.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Raloxifene is less effective for non-vertebral fractures and has VTE risk.
Page 3
, Section A - Anatomy AND Physiology OF THE Musculoskeletal System
C. Teriparatide is an anabolic agent used when bisphosphonates are ineffective or
contraindicated.
D. Calcitonin has minimal fracture reduction and is not first-line.
Reference: National Osteoporosis Foundation. (2026). Clinician's Guide to Prevention and Treatment of
Osteoporosis.
Q3.
A patient with septic arthritis of the knee is being started on empiric antibiotics. Which
finding would most strongly support the need for surgical intervention?
A. Positive blood cultures B. Presence of prosthetic joint
C. Elevated C-reactive protein D. Inability to bear weight
Correct: B - Presence of prosthetic joint
Rationale:Prosthetic joint infections often require surgical debridement and implant removal
because biofilms protect bacteria. Positive blood cultures and elevated CRP are common but
do not necessitate surgery.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Positive blood cultures indicate bacteremia but can be managed medically.
C. Elevated CRP is a nonspecific marker of inflammation.
D. Inability to bear weight is not a specific indication for surgery.
Reference: IDSA Guidelines on Septic Arthritis. (2026). Clinical Infectious Diseases.
Q4.
A patient on long-term glucocorticoid therapy is scheduled for a major orthopedic
surgery. Which medication should be administered perioperatively to prevent adrenal
insufficiency?
A. Hydrocortisone B. Prednisone
C. Dexamethasone D. Betamethasone
Correct: A - Hydrocortisone
Rationale:Hydrocortisone has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity, providing
rapid stress-dose coverage. Prednisone and dexamethasone lack sufficient mineralocorticoid
effect or have delayed onset.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Prednisone requires hepatic conversion and has a slower onset.
C. Dexamethasone has no mineralocorticoid activity and is long-acting.
D. Betamethasone is similar to dexamethasone and not ideal for acute stress dosing.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 76.
Page 4
MUSCULOSKELETAL | QUESTIONS & CORRECT
ANSWERS | 2026/2027 UPDATED | NEW!!!
120 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 5700 POST-LECTURE TEST: MUSCULOSKELETAL | QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS | 2026/2027
UPDATED | NEW!!!. It contains 120 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and
testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the
underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 120 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 5700 Post-lecture Musculoskeletal & Correct 2026/2027 Updated NEW
Musculoskeletal Nursing Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Anatomy AND Physiology OF 1-20 Fracture, Appropriate, Arthritis, Finding, Mechanism
THE Musculoskeletal System
Assessment AND Diagnostic 21-40 Fracture, Arthritis, Therapy, Prescribed, Rheumatoid
Tests
Fractures AND Fracture 41-60 Appropriate, Finding, Long-term, Therapy, Acute
Management
Osteoarthritis AND 61-80 Finding, Therapy, Acute, Arthritis, Rather
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Osteoporosis AND Metabolic 81-100 Finding, Osteoporosis, Prescribed, Long-term, Therapy
BONE Diseases
Infections OF THE BONE 101-120 Finding, Osteoporosis, Disease, Laboratory, Chronic
AND Joint
TOTAL 120 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Anatomy AND Physiology OF THE
Musculoskeletal System
Q1.
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4 presents with bone pain and elevated
intact parathyroid hormone (PTH). Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains the
skeletal changes in this patient?
A. Increased osteoclast activity due to B. Decreased calcitriol synthesis leading to
secondary hyperparathyroidism reduced intestinal calcium absorption and
hypocalcemia
C. Direct toxic effect of uremic toxins on D. Increased fibroblast growth factor 23
osteoblasts (FGF23) secretion causing phosphaturia
and osteomalacia
Correct: B - Decreased calcitriol synthesis leading to reduced intestinal calcium
absorption and hypocalcemia
Rationale:In CKD, reduced renal mass decreases calcitriol production, leading to
hypocalcemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. The primary trigger is the deficiency of
active vitamin D, not the direct effect of PTH or uremic toxins.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Increased osteoclast activity is a consequence, not the initiating mechanism.
C. Uremic toxins may contribute but are not the primary cause of skeletal changes.
D. FGF23 is elevated but its main effect is on phosphate excretion, not directly causing
osteomalacia.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 93.
Q2.
A postmenopausal woman has a T-score of -2.8 and a history of fragility fracture. Which
pharmacologic agent is most appropriate as first-line therapy to reduce fracture risk?
A. Alendronate B. Raloxifene
C. Teriparatide D. Calcitonin
Correct: A - Alendronate
Rationale:Bisphosphonates like alendronate are first-line for osteoporosis in postmenopausal
women, reducing vertebral and hip fractures. Teriparatide is reserved for severe cases or
those who fail bisphosphonates.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Raloxifene is less effective for non-vertebral fractures and has VTE risk.
Page 3
, Section A - Anatomy AND Physiology OF THE Musculoskeletal System
C. Teriparatide is an anabolic agent used when bisphosphonates are ineffective or
contraindicated.
D. Calcitonin has minimal fracture reduction and is not first-line.
Reference: National Osteoporosis Foundation. (2026). Clinician's Guide to Prevention and Treatment of
Osteoporosis.
Q3.
A patient with septic arthritis of the knee is being started on empiric antibiotics. Which
finding would most strongly support the need for surgical intervention?
A. Positive blood cultures B. Presence of prosthetic joint
C. Elevated C-reactive protein D. Inability to bear weight
Correct: B - Presence of prosthetic joint
Rationale:Prosthetic joint infections often require surgical debridement and implant removal
because biofilms protect bacteria. Positive blood cultures and elevated CRP are common but
do not necessitate surgery.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Positive blood cultures indicate bacteremia but can be managed medically.
C. Elevated CRP is a nonspecific marker of inflammation.
D. Inability to bear weight is not a specific indication for surgery.
Reference: IDSA Guidelines on Septic Arthritis. (2026). Clinical Infectious Diseases.
Q4.
A patient on long-term glucocorticoid therapy is scheduled for a major orthopedic
surgery. Which medication should be administered perioperatively to prevent adrenal
insufficiency?
A. Hydrocortisone B. Prednisone
C. Dexamethasone D. Betamethasone
Correct: A - Hydrocortisone
Rationale:Hydrocortisone has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity, providing
rapid stress-dose coverage. Prednisone and dexamethasone lack sufficient mineralocorticoid
effect or have delayed onset.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Prednisone requires hepatic conversion and has a slower onset.
C. Dexamethasone has no mineralocorticoid activity and is long-acting.
D. Betamethasone is similar to dexamethasone and not ideal for acute stress dosing.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 76.
Page 4
