UTA NURS 5220 Advanced Health Assessment Test 1 NEWEST
2026-2027 COMPLETE 550 QUESTIONS
Question 1
A 58-year-old male reports chest pain that occurs with exertion and resolves with rest. Which
mnemonic is most appropriate to further assess this symptom?
A. SAMPLE
B. HEADSS
C. PQRST
D. COLDSPA
Correct Answer: C. PQRST
Rationale: The PQRST mnemonic (Provocation/Palliation, Quality/Quantity, Region/Radiation,
Severity Scale, Timing) is specifically designed for a deep dive into a chief complaint like pain.
SAMPLE is for history of present illness; HEADSS is for adolescent psychosocial screening;
COLDSPA is an alternative but PQRST is most standard for pain assessment.
Question 2
A 72-year-old patient tells you, "I have a touch of sugar and a little bit of high blood." What is
the best response by the nurse practitioner?
A. "So you have diabetes mellitus and hypertension?"
B. "Please use the correct medical terms for your conditions."
C. "Tell me more about what you call 'sugar' and 'high blood.'"
D. "When were you diagnosed with these conditions?"
Correct Answer: C. "Tell me more about what you call 'sugar' and 'high blood.'"
Rationale: Using the patient's own language and asking for clarification is the most therapeutic
and patient-centered approach. It avoids making assumptions, demonstrates respect, and
encourages the patient to elaborate using their own terminology.
Question 3
Which element of the health history is considered subjective data?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
B. Liver span 10 cm by percussion
C. Patient reports dizziness when standing
,D. Pupils equal, round, reactive to light
Correct Answer: C. Patient reports dizziness when standing
Rationale: Subjective data is what the patient tells you (symptoms, feelings, perceptions).
Objective data is what you observe or measure (vital signs, physical exam findings).
Question 4
The comprehensive health history begins with which of the following components?
A. Past medical history
B. Chief complaint
C. Biographical data
D. Review of systems
Correct Answer: C. Biographical data
Rationale: The comprehensive health history begins with biographical data, which includes the
patient's name, age, gender, race, occupation, and referral source. This information establishes
the patient's identity and context before proceeding to the chief complaint and history of
present illness. Past medical history is collected later, and the review of systems is conducted
near the end of the comprehensive health history.
Question 5
A nurse practitioner is conducting an initial interview with a new patient. Which question is
most appropriate to begin the health history?
A. "Do you have any chest pain?"
B. "Tell me about your health concerns."
C. "Have you had any surgeries in the past?"
D. "Is your pain sharp or dull?"
Correct Answer: B. "Tell me about your health concerns."
Rationale: Open-ended questions are the best way to begin a health history interview. They
allow the patient to express their concerns in their own words and establish rapport. Closed-
ended questions should be reserved for later in the interview to gather specific details.
Question 6
Which of the following is true about auscultating the heart?
A. The diaphragm is better for picking up the sounds of S1 and S2 and the bell is better for
picking up the sounds of S3 and S4.
B. The bell is better for picking up the sounds of S1 and S2 and the diaphragm is better for
picking up the sounds of S3 and S4.
C. The diaphragm is not necessary for accurate auscultation during the cardiac exam.
,D. The bell is not necessary for the cardiac exam, but it is necessary for accurate auscultation
during the abdominal exam.
Correct Answer: A. The diaphragm is better for picking up the sounds of S1 and S2 and the bell
is better for picking up the sounds of S3 and S4.
Rationale: The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed to pick up higher-pitched sounds such
as S1 and S2, while the bell is better for lower-pitched sounds such as S3 and S4. Both are
necessary for a complete cardiac examination.
Question 7
The nurse practitioner auscultates the heart and hears a murmur which she documents as 4/6
at its loudest point. She means the murmur is:
A. Moderately loud
B. Very loud, with thrill. May be heard when the stethoscope is partly off the chest.
C. Loud with a palpable thrill.
D. Quiet, but heard immediately after placing the stethoscope on the chest.
Correct Answer: C. Loud with a palpable thrill.
Rationale: Grade 4 is loud with a palpable thrill. Grade 1 is very faint; Grade 2 is quiet but heard
immediately; Grade 3 is moderately loud; Grade 5 is very loud with thrill and heard with
stethoscope partly off the chest; Grade 6 is heard without a stethoscope.
Question 8
Physiologic splitting of the S2 in the 2nd and 3rd interspace, which is usually accentuated by
inspiration, is caused by:
A. The closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves
B. The addition of the S4 sound
C. The addition of the S3 sound
D. The closing of the tricuspid and mitral valves
Correct Answer: A. The closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves
Rationale: Physiologic splitting of S2 is caused by the closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves.
Usually, the pulmonic valve closure is too faint to be heard at the apex. The split is accentuated
upon inspiration and disappears on expiration.
Question 9
When assessing a patient's lungs, the nurse recalls that the left lung:
A. Is shorter than the right lung because of the underlying stomach.
, B. Is divided by the horizontal fissure.
C. Consists of 2 lobes.
D. Consists primarily of an upper lobe on the posterior chest.
Correct Answer: C. Consists of 2 lobes.
Rationale: The left lung has 2 lobes, and the right lung has 3 lobes. The right lung is shorter than
the left lung because of the underlying liver. The left lung is narrower than the right lung
because the heart bulges to the left. The posterior chest is almost all lower lobe.
Question 10
Which of the following justifies performing auscultation before percussion and palpation in an
abdominal assessment?
A. Palpation and percussion may alter bowel sounds
B. Auscultation is less time-consuming
C. Percussion and palpation require more skill
D. Bowel sounds are best heard after eating
Correct Answer: A. Palpation and percussion may alter bowel sounds
Rationale: In abdominal assessments, auscultation should be performed before percussion and
palpation because these maneuvers can stimulate bowel activity and alter bowel sounds,
leading to inaccurate assessment findings.
Question 11
Freckles are examples of what type of common skin lesion?
A. Papule
B. Macule
C. Wheal
D. Nodule
Correct Answer: B. Macule
Rationale: A macule is a flat, discolored area of the skin that is usually less than 1 cm in
diameter. Freckles are a classic example of a macule. A papule is a small, raised, solid bump; a
wheal is a raised, irregular-shaped area; and a nodule is a larger, solid, elevated lesion.
Question 12
An insect bite that is the size of a dime would be considered what type of common skin lesion?
A. Macule
B. Papule
2026-2027 COMPLETE 550 QUESTIONS
Question 1
A 58-year-old male reports chest pain that occurs with exertion and resolves with rest. Which
mnemonic is most appropriate to further assess this symptom?
A. SAMPLE
B. HEADSS
C. PQRST
D. COLDSPA
Correct Answer: C. PQRST
Rationale: The PQRST mnemonic (Provocation/Palliation, Quality/Quantity, Region/Radiation,
Severity Scale, Timing) is specifically designed for a deep dive into a chief complaint like pain.
SAMPLE is for history of present illness; HEADSS is for adolescent psychosocial screening;
COLDSPA is an alternative but PQRST is most standard for pain assessment.
Question 2
A 72-year-old patient tells you, "I have a touch of sugar and a little bit of high blood." What is
the best response by the nurse practitioner?
A. "So you have diabetes mellitus and hypertension?"
B. "Please use the correct medical terms for your conditions."
C. "Tell me more about what you call 'sugar' and 'high blood.'"
D. "When were you diagnosed with these conditions?"
Correct Answer: C. "Tell me more about what you call 'sugar' and 'high blood.'"
Rationale: Using the patient's own language and asking for clarification is the most therapeutic
and patient-centered approach. It avoids making assumptions, demonstrates respect, and
encourages the patient to elaborate using their own terminology.
Question 3
Which element of the health history is considered subjective data?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
B. Liver span 10 cm by percussion
C. Patient reports dizziness when standing
,D. Pupils equal, round, reactive to light
Correct Answer: C. Patient reports dizziness when standing
Rationale: Subjective data is what the patient tells you (symptoms, feelings, perceptions).
Objective data is what you observe or measure (vital signs, physical exam findings).
Question 4
The comprehensive health history begins with which of the following components?
A. Past medical history
B. Chief complaint
C. Biographical data
D. Review of systems
Correct Answer: C. Biographical data
Rationale: The comprehensive health history begins with biographical data, which includes the
patient's name, age, gender, race, occupation, and referral source. This information establishes
the patient's identity and context before proceeding to the chief complaint and history of
present illness. Past medical history is collected later, and the review of systems is conducted
near the end of the comprehensive health history.
Question 5
A nurse practitioner is conducting an initial interview with a new patient. Which question is
most appropriate to begin the health history?
A. "Do you have any chest pain?"
B. "Tell me about your health concerns."
C. "Have you had any surgeries in the past?"
D. "Is your pain sharp or dull?"
Correct Answer: B. "Tell me about your health concerns."
Rationale: Open-ended questions are the best way to begin a health history interview. They
allow the patient to express their concerns in their own words and establish rapport. Closed-
ended questions should be reserved for later in the interview to gather specific details.
Question 6
Which of the following is true about auscultating the heart?
A. The diaphragm is better for picking up the sounds of S1 and S2 and the bell is better for
picking up the sounds of S3 and S4.
B. The bell is better for picking up the sounds of S1 and S2 and the diaphragm is better for
picking up the sounds of S3 and S4.
C. The diaphragm is not necessary for accurate auscultation during the cardiac exam.
,D. The bell is not necessary for the cardiac exam, but it is necessary for accurate auscultation
during the abdominal exam.
Correct Answer: A. The diaphragm is better for picking up the sounds of S1 and S2 and the bell
is better for picking up the sounds of S3 and S4.
Rationale: The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed to pick up higher-pitched sounds such
as S1 and S2, while the bell is better for lower-pitched sounds such as S3 and S4. Both are
necessary for a complete cardiac examination.
Question 7
The nurse practitioner auscultates the heart and hears a murmur which she documents as 4/6
at its loudest point. She means the murmur is:
A. Moderately loud
B. Very loud, with thrill. May be heard when the stethoscope is partly off the chest.
C. Loud with a palpable thrill.
D. Quiet, but heard immediately after placing the stethoscope on the chest.
Correct Answer: C. Loud with a palpable thrill.
Rationale: Grade 4 is loud with a palpable thrill. Grade 1 is very faint; Grade 2 is quiet but heard
immediately; Grade 3 is moderately loud; Grade 5 is very loud with thrill and heard with
stethoscope partly off the chest; Grade 6 is heard without a stethoscope.
Question 8
Physiologic splitting of the S2 in the 2nd and 3rd interspace, which is usually accentuated by
inspiration, is caused by:
A. The closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves
B. The addition of the S4 sound
C. The addition of the S3 sound
D. The closing of the tricuspid and mitral valves
Correct Answer: A. The closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves
Rationale: Physiologic splitting of S2 is caused by the closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves.
Usually, the pulmonic valve closure is too faint to be heard at the apex. The split is accentuated
upon inspiration and disappears on expiration.
Question 9
When assessing a patient's lungs, the nurse recalls that the left lung:
A. Is shorter than the right lung because of the underlying stomach.
, B. Is divided by the horizontal fissure.
C. Consists of 2 lobes.
D. Consists primarily of an upper lobe on the posterior chest.
Correct Answer: C. Consists of 2 lobes.
Rationale: The left lung has 2 lobes, and the right lung has 3 lobes. The right lung is shorter than
the left lung because of the underlying liver. The left lung is narrower than the right lung
because the heart bulges to the left. The posterior chest is almost all lower lobe.
Question 10
Which of the following justifies performing auscultation before percussion and palpation in an
abdominal assessment?
A. Palpation and percussion may alter bowel sounds
B. Auscultation is less time-consuming
C. Percussion and palpation require more skill
D. Bowel sounds are best heard after eating
Correct Answer: A. Palpation and percussion may alter bowel sounds
Rationale: In abdominal assessments, auscultation should be performed before percussion and
palpation because these maneuvers can stimulate bowel activity and alter bowel sounds,
leading to inaccurate assessment findings.
Question 11
Freckles are examples of what type of common skin lesion?
A. Papule
B. Macule
C. Wheal
D. Nodule
Correct Answer: B. Macule
Rationale: A macule is a flat, discolored area of the skin that is usually less than 1 cm in
diameter. Freckles are a classic example of a macule. A papule is a small, raised, solid bump; a
wheal is a raised, irregular-shaped area; and a nodule is a larger, solid, elevated lesion.
Question 12
An insect bite that is the size of a dime would be considered what type of common skin lesion?
A. Macule
B. Papule
