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DAVITA PCT Final Exam | Ultimate Study Guide with Comprehensive Questions, Correct Answer & Detailed Explanations – Latest Update 2026/2027 | Already Graded A+

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DAVITA PCT Final Exam | Ultimate Study Guide with Comprehensive Questions, Correct Answer & Detailed Explanations – Latest Update 2026/2027 | Already Graded A+

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DAVITA PCT Final Exam | Ultimate Study Guide with
Comprehensive Questions, Correct Answer & Detailed
Explanations – Latest Update 2026/2027 | Already Graded A+
1. What is the primary purpose of hemodialysis for a patient with end-
stage kidney disease?

A. To permanently restore kidney function
B. To remove metabolic wastes and excess fluid from the blood
C. To increase red blood cell production
D. To eliminate the need for dietary restrictions

Correct Answer: B. To remove metabolic wastes and excess fluid from
the blood

Explanation: Hemodialysis replaces some functions of the kidneys by
removing waste products, excess electrolytes, and fluid from the blood. It does
not cure kidney failure or permanently restore normal renal function.



2. Which process describes the movement of solutes across a
semipermeable membrane from an area of higher concentration to an
area of lower concentration?

A. Diffusion
B. Ultrafiltration
C. Osmosis
D. Convection

Correct Answer: A. Diffusion

Explanation: Diffusion is the primary mechanism by which many small waste
molecules, such as urea, move across the dialyzer membrane. Solutes move
down their concentration gradient from higher concentration in the blood
toward lower concentration in the dialysate.



3. What is ultrafiltration during hemodialysis?

1

,A. Movement of blood through the dialyzer
B. Removal of excess fluid across the semipermeable membrane
C. Movement of sodium into the bloodstream
D. Destruction of bacteria in the dialysate

Correct Answer: B. Removal of excess fluid across the semipermeable
membrane

Explanation: Ultrafiltration removes water from the patient's blood by
creating a pressure gradient across the dialyzer membrane. The amount
removed is determined by the prescribed treatment and the patient's fluid
status.



4. A patient arrives for dialysis with a predialysis weight significantly
above the prescribed target weight. What does this most likely indicate?

A. Excess fluid gain
B. Severe dehydration
C. Loss of muscle mass
D. Inadequate dietary protein

Correct Answer: A. Excess fluid gain

Explanation: The difference between the predialysis weight and the target or
dry weight is commonly used to estimate fluid that may need to be removed
during treatment. The PCT should accurately obtain and document the weight
and communicate significant findings to the RN.



5. Which assessment is appropriate for an arteriovenous fistula before
dialysis?

A. Look, listen, and feel
B. Measure temperature only
C. Apply a blood pressure cuff directly over the access
D. Massage the access vigorously

Correct Answer: A. Look, listen, and feel

2

,Explanation: The vascular access should be visually inspected, auscultated
for a bruit, and palpated for a thrill according to facility procedure. Changes in
the appearance, sound, or feel of the access should be reported promptly.



6. A patient has an AV fistula. Which action should be avoided on the
access arm?

A. Checking for a thrill
B. Checking for a bruit
C. Measuring blood pressure
D. Inspecting the skin

Correct Answer: C. Measuring blood pressure

Explanation: Blood pressure measurements and venipuncture are generally
avoided on an arm containing an AV fistula or graft because compression or
needle injury can damage the vascular access. Follow facility-specific access
precautions.



7. During assessment of an AV fistula, the PCT cannot feel the usual thrill.
What is the priority action?

A. Begin cannulation immediately
B. Notify the RN and do not proceed until the access is evaluated
C. Apply a tight dressing
D. Ask the patient to exercise the arm vigorously

Correct Answer: B. Notify the RN and do not proceed until the access is
evaluated

Explanation: A sudden absence or significant change in the thrill can indicate
impaired blood flow or access thrombosis. The PCT should report the finding
promptly rather than attempting to use a potentially compromised access.



8. Which finding is associated with a functioning AV fistula?

3

, A. No sound and no vibration
B. A palpable thrill and audible bruit
C. Severe swelling and absent pulse
D. Purulent drainage

Correct Answer: B. A palpable thrill and audible bruit

Explanation: Blood flowing through the fistula typically produces a palpable
vibration called a thrill and an audible whooshing sound called a bruit.
Changes from the patient's normal access findings should be reported.



9. A dialysis patient develops severe muscle cramps during treatment.
Which factor may contribute to this complication?

A. Excessive or rapid fluid removal
B. Excessive oxygen administration
C. High hemoglobin level
D. Increased appetite

Correct Answer: A. Excessive or rapid fluid removal

Explanation: Muscle cramps are a common intradialytic complication and
may occur when fluid is removed too rapidly or when the patient's fluid
balance changes significantly. The PCT should assess the patient, check vital
signs, and notify the RN according to protocol.



10. A patient's blood pressure falls significantly during dialysis and the
patient reports dizziness. What should the PCT do first?

A. Ignore the reading
B. Assess the patient and immediately notify the RN
C. Encourage the patient to stand
D. Increase ultrafiltration independently

Correct Answer: B. Assess the patient and immediately notify the RN



4

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