NRNP 6675 MIDTERM EXAM / NRNP 6675 - PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH
NURSE PRACTITIONER CARE QUESTION AND ANSWER WITH
EXPLANATION (LATEST ): MOST COMPREHENSIVE TO PASS
140 QUESTIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
# TOPIC
1 Synthesize psychiatric assessment data to formulate accurate differential diagnoses
2 Critically evaluate psychopharmacologic and non-pharmacologic treatment options based on latest
evidence
3 Apply ethical, legal, and safety considerations in psychiatric care
4 Integrate patient-specific factors (e
5 NRNP 6675 Midterm Exam
6 NRNP 6675
7 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Care Question and Answer with Explanation
8 Latest 2026
9 2027
10 Most Comprehensive to Pass the Exam
11 100% Verified
12 UPDATE
13 Foundations of Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Care
14 Applied Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Care
15 Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Care
16 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Care Review
Page 1
,Q1 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
A patient with treatment-resistant depression has failed adequate trials of two
SSRIs and one SNRI. Which augmentation strategy is most strongly supported by
current evidence for this scenario?
A. Adding aripiprazole 2-10 mg/day CORRECT
B. Adding buspirone 15-30 mg/day
C. Switching to bupropion monotherapy
D. Adding omega-3 fatty acids 2 g/day
RATIONALE: Aripiprazole is FDA-approved and has robust evidence as an adjunctive treatment
for major depressive disorder. Buspirone and omega-3 have weaker evidence, and switching to
bupropion is less effective than augmentation.
Q2 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
In which clinical scenario is the use of a benzodiazepine as first-line treatment
most appropriate?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder with comorbid substance use disorder
B. Acute catatonia in a patient with schizophrenia CORRECT
C. Chronic insomnia in an older adult
D. Panic disorder without comorbid conditions
RATIONALE: Benzodiazepines are first-line for acute catatonia (e.g., lorazepam challenge). They
are avoided in substance use disorders, older adults for insomnia, and are not first-line for panic
disorder due to dependence risk.
Page 2
,Q3 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
A patient with bipolar disorder is stabilized on lithium and develops
lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Which medication is the most
appropriate adjunct to manage this adverse effect?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Amiloride CORRECT
C. Desmopressin
D. Furosemide
RATIONALE: Amiloride is the preferred agent for lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
because it blocks lithium uptake in the collecting duct. Thiazides can worsen hypercalcemia and
are less effective; desmopressin is ineffective in nephrogenic DI.
Q4 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
In a patient with schizophrenia who has persistent negative symptoms despite
adequate antipsychotic treatment, which intervention has the strongest evidence
for improvement?
A. Increasing the antipsychotic dose to the maximum tolerated
B. Adding a second antipsychotic
C. Cognitive behavioral therapy for psychosis (CBTp) CORRECT
D. Switching to a first-generation antipsychotic
RATIONALE: CBTp has shown moderate effect sizes for negative symptoms. Increasing dose or
adding antipsychotics often worsens side effects without benefit; first-generation antipsychotics
are not superior for negative symptoms.
Page 3
, Q5 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
Which finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of delirium rather than
dementia?
A. Gradual onset of memory impairment over months
B. Fluctuating level of consciousness with acute onset CORRECT
C. Long-term personality changes
D. No change in attention span
RATIONALE: Delirium is characterized by acute onset, fluctuating course, and altered
consciousness. Dementia typically has gradual onset without primary consciousness
disturbance. Attention is impaired in delirium, not normal.
Q6 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
A patient with generalized anxiety disorder is taking an SSRI but has residual
symptoms. Which medication is FDA-approved as an adjunctive treatment for this
condition?
A. Pregabalin
B. Quetiapine CORRECT
C. Buspirone
D. Hydroxyzine
RATIONALE: Quetiapine has FDA approval as an adjunct for GAD. Pregabalin is not
FDA-approved for GAD in the US; buspirone is indicated for anxiety but not specifically as
adjunct; hydroxyzine is for pruritus/anxiety but not FDA-approved for GAD.
Page 4
NURSE PRACTITIONER CARE QUESTION AND ANSWER WITH
EXPLANATION (LATEST ): MOST COMPREHENSIVE TO PASS
140 QUESTIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
# TOPIC
1 Synthesize psychiatric assessment data to formulate accurate differential diagnoses
2 Critically evaluate psychopharmacologic and non-pharmacologic treatment options based on latest
evidence
3 Apply ethical, legal, and safety considerations in psychiatric care
4 Integrate patient-specific factors (e
5 NRNP 6675 Midterm Exam
6 NRNP 6675
7 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Care Question and Answer with Explanation
8 Latest 2026
9 2027
10 Most Comprehensive to Pass the Exam
11 100% Verified
12 UPDATE
13 Foundations of Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Care
14 Applied Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Care
15 Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Care
16 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Care Review
Page 1
,Q1 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
A patient with treatment-resistant depression has failed adequate trials of two
SSRIs and one SNRI. Which augmentation strategy is most strongly supported by
current evidence for this scenario?
A. Adding aripiprazole 2-10 mg/day CORRECT
B. Adding buspirone 15-30 mg/day
C. Switching to bupropion monotherapy
D. Adding omega-3 fatty acids 2 g/day
RATIONALE: Aripiprazole is FDA-approved and has robust evidence as an adjunctive treatment
for major depressive disorder. Buspirone and omega-3 have weaker evidence, and switching to
bupropion is less effective than augmentation.
Q2 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
In which clinical scenario is the use of a benzodiazepine as first-line treatment
most appropriate?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder with comorbid substance use disorder
B. Acute catatonia in a patient with schizophrenia CORRECT
C. Chronic insomnia in an older adult
D. Panic disorder without comorbid conditions
RATIONALE: Benzodiazepines are first-line for acute catatonia (e.g., lorazepam challenge). They
are avoided in substance use disorders, older adults for insomnia, and are not first-line for panic
disorder due to dependence risk.
Page 2
,Q3 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
A patient with bipolar disorder is stabilized on lithium and develops
lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Which medication is the most
appropriate adjunct to manage this adverse effect?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Amiloride CORRECT
C. Desmopressin
D. Furosemide
RATIONALE: Amiloride is the preferred agent for lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
because it blocks lithium uptake in the collecting duct. Thiazides can worsen hypercalcemia and
are less effective; desmopressin is ineffective in nephrogenic DI.
Q4 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
In a patient with schizophrenia who has persistent negative symptoms despite
adequate antipsychotic treatment, which intervention has the strongest evidence
for improvement?
A. Increasing the antipsychotic dose to the maximum tolerated
B. Adding a second antipsychotic
C. Cognitive behavioral therapy for psychosis (CBTp) CORRECT
D. Switching to a first-generation antipsychotic
RATIONALE: CBTp has shown moderate effect sizes for negative symptoms. Increasing dose or
adding antipsychotics often worsens side effects without benefit; first-generation antipsychotics
are not superior for negative symptoms.
Page 3
, Q5 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
Which finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of delirium rather than
dementia?
A. Gradual onset of memory impairment over months
B. Fluctuating level of consciousness with acute onset CORRECT
C. Long-term personality changes
D. No change in attention span
RATIONALE: Delirium is characterized by acute onset, fluctuating course, and altered
consciousness. Dementia typically has gradual onset without primary consciousness
disturbance. Attention is impaired in delirium, not normal.
Q6 SYNTHESIZE PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT DATA TO FORMULATE ACCURATE
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES
A patient with generalized anxiety disorder is taking an SSRI but has residual
symptoms. Which medication is FDA-approved as an adjunctive treatment for this
condition?
A. Pregabalin
B. Quetiapine CORRECT
C. Buspirone
D. Hydroxyzine
RATIONALE: Quetiapine has FDA approval as an adjunct for GAD. Pregabalin is not
FDA-approved for GAD in the US; buspirone is indicated for anxiety but not specifically as
adjunct; hydroxyzine is for pruritus/anxiety but not FDA-approved for GAD.
Page 4
