CCNA 200-301 EXAM BRAND NEW VERSION 2027-2028 Q&A
EXAM -PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PLUS DETAILED
RATIONALES | COMPLETE STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS |
DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF 2027-2028
1. A network administrator is configuring a switch for a small office. The administrator
needs to assign an IPv4 address to the switch so that it can be managed remotely from
another subnet. Which interface should be configured with the management IP address?
A. A physical access port
B. The console interface
C. A switched virtual interface
D. The auxiliary interface
A switched virtual interface (SVI) provides a Layer 3 interface for management of a Layer 2
switch. An IP address can be assigned to an SVI such as VLAN 1 or another designated
management VLAN.
2. Which two characteristics describe a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. It creates a separate broadcast domain
B. It requires a dedicated physical switch for each VLAN
C. It can logically segment users on the same physical switch
D. It automatically encrypts traffic between hosts
A VLAN creates a logical broadcast domain and allows devices connected to the same physical
infrastructure to be separated logically. VLANs do not inherently provide encryption or
require a separate physical switch.
3. A switch receives an Ethernet frame with a destination MAC address that is not present
in its MAC address table. What action does the switch take?
A. It drops the frame immediately
B. It floods the frame out all ports except the receiving port
C. It sends the frame to the default gateway
D. It forwards the frame only through a trunk port
When a destination MAC address is unknown, a switch floods the frame within the applicable
VLAN, excluding the port on which the frame was received.
4. An engineer connects two switches using a link that must carry traffic for VLANs 10, 20,
and 30. Which switch-port configuration is most appropriate?
,A. Access mode
B. Routed port
C. Port security mode
D. Trunk mode
A trunk carries traffic for multiple VLANs across a single physical link. An access port normally
carries traffic for one VLAN.
5. A workstation in VLAN 20 needs to communicate with a server in VLAN 30. Both
devices are connected to the same Layer 2 switch. What is required for communication
between the VLANs?
A. Inter-VLAN routing
B. Port security
C. STP portfast
D. MAC address flooding
VLANs represent separate Layer 2 broadcast domains. Communication between them
requires a Layer 3 routing function, such as a router or multilayer switch.
6. A network administrator wants hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 to communicate
through a multilayer switch. Which configuration is required on the switch?
A. Configure only a native VLAN
B. Configure only a trunk to another access switch
C. Configure SVIs and enable IP routing
D. Disable spanning tree
A multilayer switch can route between VLANs by using SVIs as Layer 3 gateways and enabling
IP routing on the switch.
7. Which protocol is primarily responsible for preventing Layer 2 switching loops in a
redundant switched network?
A. OSPF
B. STP
C. DHCP
D. ARP
Spanning Tree Protocol prevents Layer 2 loops by logically blocking redundant paths while
maintaining them as potential backup paths.
8. Two switches are connected redundantly. The network administrator observes that one
redundant link is placed into a blocking state. Why does STP perform this action?
,A. To prevent routing between VLANs
B. To increase broadcast traffic
C. To disable trunking
D. To prevent a Layer 2 switching loop
STP intentionally places selected redundant ports into a non-forwarding state to prevent
frames from circulating indefinitely through a Layer 2 loop.
9. Which device function is most closely associated with the default gateway of an IPv4
host?
A. Forwarding traffic to remote networks
B. Assigning the host's MAC address
C. Resolving domain names
D. Providing wireless authentication
A default gateway is the Layer 3 device to which a host sends traffic destined for networks
outside its local subnet.
10. A host has the IPv4 address 192.168.50.25/24. Which address represents the host's
subnet network address?
A. 192.168.50.1
B. 192.168.50.25
C. 192.168.50.255
D. 192.168.50.0
With a /24 mask, the first 24 bits identify the network. Therefore, 192.168.50.0 is the network
address and 192.168.50.25 is a usable host address.
11. A company needs at least 30 usable IPv4 host addresses in a subnet. Which prefix
provides the required capacity with the least address waste?
A. /28
B. /27
C. /26
D. /30
A /27 subnet contains 32 total addresses, of which 30 are normally usable host addresses. A
/28 provides only 14 usable addresses.
12. Which IPv4 address is within a private address range?
A. 8.8.8.8
B. 172.40.10.5
, C. 192.168.25.10
D. 203.0.113.15
192.168.0.0/16 is one of the private IPv4 address ranges. Private addresses are commonly
used inside internal networks and are not directly routable across the public Internet.
13. A router has two possible routes to the same destination. One route has an
administrative distance of 90, while another has an administrative distance of 110. Which
route is preferred when the routes are learned from different routing sources?
A. The route with administrative distance 90
B. The route with administrative distance 110
C. Both routes equally
D. The route with the larger metric only
Administrative distance is used to rank the trustworthiness of routes learned from different
routing sources. Lower administrative distance is preferred.
14. A router learns two routes to 10.10.20.0/24. One route is static and the other is learned
through OSPF. Which route is normally preferred?
A. OSPF because it is dynamic
B. The route with the highest metric
C. The static route because its administrative distance is lower
D. Both routes because they have the same prefix
A standard static route has an administrative distance of 1, while OSPF has an administrative
distance of 110. Therefore, the static route is normally preferred.
15. Which statement accurately describes longest-prefix matching?
A. The router selects the route with the highest administrative distance
B. The router selects the most specific matching route
C. The router always selects the route with the lowest metric regardless of prefix
D. The router selects the oldest route in the routing table
When multiple routes match a destination, the router first prefers the route with the longest
matching prefix because it represents the most specific destination information.
16. A network engineer wants a routing protocol that uses link-state information and
supports hierarchical design through areas. Which protocol should be selected?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
EXAM -PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PLUS DETAILED
RATIONALES | COMPLETE STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS |
DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF 2027-2028
1. A network administrator is configuring a switch for a small office. The administrator
needs to assign an IPv4 address to the switch so that it can be managed remotely from
another subnet. Which interface should be configured with the management IP address?
A. A physical access port
B. The console interface
C. A switched virtual interface
D. The auxiliary interface
A switched virtual interface (SVI) provides a Layer 3 interface for management of a Layer 2
switch. An IP address can be assigned to an SVI such as VLAN 1 or another designated
management VLAN.
2. Which two characteristics describe a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. It creates a separate broadcast domain
B. It requires a dedicated physical switch for each VLAN
C. It can logically segment users on the same physical switch
D. It automatically encrypts traffic between hosts
A VLAN creates a logical broadcast domain and allows devices connected to the same physical
infrastructure to be separated logically. VLANs do not inherently provide encryption or
require a separate physical switch.
3. A switch receives an Ethernet frame with a destination MAC address that is not present
in its MAC address table. What action does the switch take?
A. It drops the frame immediately
B. It floods the frame out all ports except the receiving port
C. It sends the frame to the default gateway
D. It forwards the frame only through a trunk port
When a destination MAC address is unknown, a switch floods the frame within the applicable
VLAN, excluding the port on which the frame was received.
4. An engineer connects two switches using a link that must carry traffic for VLANs 10, 20,
and 30. Which switch-port configuration is most appropriate?
,A. Access mode
B. Routed port
C. Port security mode
D. Trunk mode
A trunk carries traffic for multiple VLANs across a single physical link. An access port normally
carries traffic for one VLAN.
5. A workstation in VLAN 20 needs to communicate with a server in VLAN 30. Both
devices are connected to the same Layer 2 switch. What is required for communication
between the VLANs?
A. Inter-VLAN routing
B. Port security
C. STP portfast
D. MAC address flooding
VLANs represent separate Layer 2 broadcast domains. Communication between them
requires a Layer 3 routing function, such as a router or multilayer switch.
6. A network administrator wants hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 to communicate
through a multilayer switch. Which configuration is required on the switch?
A. Configure only a native VLAN
B. Configure only a trunk to another access switch
C. Configure SVIs and enable IP routing
D. Disable spanning tree
A multilayer switch can route between VLANs by using SVIs as Layer 3 gateways and enabling
IP routing on the switch.
7. Which protocol is primarily responsible for preventing Layer 2 switching loops in a
redundant switched network?
A. OSPF
B. STP
C. DHCP
D. ARP
Spanning Tree Protocol prevents Layer 2 loops by logically blocking redundant paths while
maintaining them as potential backup paths.
8. Two switches are connected redundantly. The network administrator observes that one
redundant link is placed into a blocking state. Why does STP perform this action?
,A. To prevent routing between VLANs
B. To increase broadcast traffic
C. To disable trunking
D. To prevent a Layer 2 switching loop
STP intentionally places selected redundant ports into a non-forwarding state to prevent
frames from circulating indefinitely through a Layer 2 loop.
9. Which device function is most closely associated with the default gateway of an IPv4
host?
A. Forwarding traffic to remote networks
B. Assigning the host's MAC address
C. Resolving domain names
D. Providing wireless authentication
A default gateway is the Layer 3 device to which a host sends traffic destined for networks
outside its local subnet.
10. A host has the IPv4 address 192.168.50.25/24. Which address represents the host's
subnet network address?
A. 192.168.50.1
B. 192.168.50.25
C. 192.168.50.255
D. 192.168.50.0
With a /24 mask, the first 24 bits identify the network. Therefore, 192.168.50.0 is the network
address and 192.168.50.25 is a usable host address.
11. A company needs at least 30 usable IPv4 host addresses in a subnet. Which prefix
provides the required capacity with the least address waste?
A. /28
B. /27
C. /26
D. /30
A /27 subnet contains 32 total addresses, of which 30 are normally usable host addresses. A
/28 provides only 14 usable addresses.
12. Which IPv4 address is within a private address range?
A. 8.8.8.8
B. 172.40.10.5
, C. 192.168.25.10
D. 203.0.113.15
192.168.0.0/16 is one of the private IPv4 address ranges. Private addresses are commonly
used inside internal networks and are not directly routable across the public Internet.
13. A router has two possible routes to the same destination. One route has an
administrative distance of 90, while another has an administrative distance of 110. Which
route is preferred when the routes are learned from different routing sources?
A. The route with administrative distance 90
B. The route with administrative distance 110
C. Both routes equally
D. The route with the larger metric only
Administrative distance is used to rank the trustworthiness of routes learned from different
routing sources. Lower administrative distance is preferred.
14. A router learns two routes to 10.10.20.0/24. One route is static and the other is learned
through OSPF. Which route is normally preferred?
A. OSPF because it is dynamic
B. The route with the highest metric
C. The static route because its administrative distance is lower
D. Both routes because they have the same prefix
A standard static route has an administrative distance of 1, while OSPF has an administrative
distance of 110. Therefore, the static route is normally preferred.
15. Which statement accurately describes longest-prefix matching?
A. The router selects the route with the highest administrative distance
B. The router selects the most specific matching route
C. The router always selects the route with the lowest metric regardless of prefix
D. The router selects the oldest route in the routing table
When multiple routes match a destination, the router first prefers the route with the longest
matching prefix because it represents the most specific destination information.
16. A network engineer wants a routing protocol that uses link-state information and
supports hierarchical design through areas. Which protocol should be selected?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
