ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM BRAND NEW
VERSION 2027-2028 Q&A EXAM -PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS PLUS DETAILED RATIONALES | COMPLETE
STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS | DOWNLOAD INSTANT
PDF 2027-2028
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Hoarse voice
B. Incisional discomfort rated 4/10
C. Inspiratory stridor
D. Small amount of serosanguineous drainage
Inspiratory stridor indicates possible airway obstruction from edema or a developing
hematoma and requires immediate intervention. Airway compromise is the priority following
thyroid surgery.
2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which
laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate therapeutic effectiveness?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Hemoglobin A1c
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is commonly used to monitor the
therapeutic effect of unfractionated IV heparin. INR is primarily used to monitor warfarin
therapy.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which assessment finding is most
important for the nurse to report?
A. Urine output of 1,200 mL in 24 hours
B. Blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg
C. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L
D. Weight loss of 1 kg over 2 days
Furosemide can cause significant potassium loss. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L places the
client at risk for dysrhythmias and requires prompt intervention.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus about recognizing
hypoglycemia. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
,A. "I should expect increased thirst when my glucose is low."
B. "I may become shaky and sweaty."
C. "I should administer additional insulin."
D. "I should avoid eating until my symptoms resolve."
Shakiness, sweating, tachycardia, hunger, and confusion are common manifestations of
hypoglycemia. The client should consume a rapid-acting carbohydrate when appropriate.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and suddenly becomes confused,
restless, and cyanotic. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a sputum specimen
B. Encourage oral fluids
C. Apply supplemental oxygen
D. Administer the prescribed antibiotic
The client's cyanosis and acute mental-status change suggest significant hypoxemia.
Supporting oxygenation takes priority over diagnostic testing or medication administration.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client. Which finding should cause
the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Apical pulse of 54/min
B. Respiratory rate of 18/min
C. Blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
D. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
Digoxin can cause or worsen bradycardia. An adult apical pulse below the commonly
accepted threshold of 60/min should prompt the nurse to withhold the dose and notify the
provider.
7. A client is admitted with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which infection-control
intervention is appropriate?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Contact precautions only
C. Droplet precautions
D. Protective isolation
Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions because respiratory droplets can transmit
the causative organisms.
8. A nurse is teaching a client taking warfarin. Which food choice indicates the need for
additional teaching?
,A. White rice
B. Grilled chicken
C. Spinach salad
D. Applesauce
Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can reduce the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Clients do
not necessarily need to avoid vitamin K foods, but consistent intake is important.
9. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen. Which
prescription should the nurse question?
A. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
B. Oxygen at 2 L/min by nasal cannula
C. Position in high-Fowler's position
D. Oxygen at 15 L/min by nonrebreather mask continuously without reassessment
Excessive oxygen administration can worsen carbon dioxide retention in some clients with
COPD. Oxygen should be carefully titrated to the prescribed target saturation and clinical
condition.
10. A nurse is assessing a client who received morphine after surgery. Which finding is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Pruritus
D. Constipation
Opioids can cause life-threatening respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 8/min requires
immediate assessment and intervention.
11. A client with a suspected stroke has facial drooping and unilateral weakness. Which
information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
A. Last known well time
B. Dietary preferences
C. Immunization history
D. Previous surgical history
The time the client was last known to be neurologically normal is critical when determining
eligibility for time-sensitive stroke interventions.
12. A nurse is caring for a client receiving packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes after
initiation, the client reports chills and low back pain. What should the nurse do first?
, A. Slow the transfusion
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer acetaminophen
D. Obtain a urine specimen
Chills and back pain may indicate an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The nurse should
immediately stop the blood product and maintain IV access with appropriate compatible
solution according to protocol.
13. A nurse is assessing a client with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which finding is expected?
A. Bradycardia
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Severe hypothermia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid respirations that occur as the body attempts to
compensate for metabolic acidosis associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.
14. A client with a new colostomy asks when the stoma should normally appear. Which
response is appropriate?
A. "It should be pale and dry."
B. "It should be dark purple."
C. "It should be pink to red and moist."
D. "It should be completely flat and without drainage."
A healthy stoma is typically pink or red and moist because it contains highly vascular tissue.
Pale, dusky, purple, or black tissue may indicate impaired circulation.
15. A nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which position is
generally appropriate?
A. Flat with the neck flexed
B. Head elevated with the neck in neutral alignment
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Prone with the head rotated
Elevating the head while maintaining neutral neck alignment promotes venous drainage and
can help reduce intracranial pressure.
16. A client taking lisinopril develops swelling of the lips and tongue. Which action is the
priority?
VERSION 2027-2028 Q&A EXAM -PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS PLUS DETAILED RATIONALES | COMPLETE
STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS | DOWNLOAD INSTANT
PDF 2027-2028
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Hoarse voice
B. Incisional discomfort rated 4/10
C. Inspiratory stridor
D. Small amount of serosanguineous drainage
Inspiratory stridor indicates possible airway obstruction from edema or a developing
hematoma and requires immediate intervention. Airway compromise is the priority following
thyroid surgery.
2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which
laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate therapeutic effectiveness?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Hemoglobin A1c
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is commonly used to monitor the
therapeutic effect of unfractionated IV heparin. INR is primarily used to monitor warfarin
therapy.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which assessment finding is most
important for the nurse to report?
A. Urine output of 1,200 mL in 24 hours
B. Blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg
C. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L
D. Weight loss of 1 kg over 2 days
Furosemide can cause significant potassium loss. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L places the
client at risk for dysrhythmias and requires prompt intervention.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus about recognizing
hypoglycemia. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
,A. "I should expect increased thirst when my glucose is low."
B. "I may become shaky and sweaty."
C. "I should administer additional insulin."
D. "I should avoid eating until my symptoms resolve."
Shakiness, sweating, tachycardia, hunger, and confusion are common manifestations of
hypoglycemia. The client should consume a rapid-acting carbohydrate when appropriate.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and suddenly becomes confused,
restless, and cyanotic. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a sputum specimen
B. Encourage oral fluids
C. Apply supplemental oxygen
D. Administer the prescribed antibiotic
The client's cyanosis and acute mental-status change suggest significant hypoxemia.
Supporting oxygenation takes priority over diagnostic testing or medication administration.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client. Which finding should cause
the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Apical pulse of 54/min
B. Respiratory rate of 18/min
C. Blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
D. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
Digoxin can cause or worsen bradycardia. An adult apical pulse below the commonly
accepted threshold of 60/min should prompt the nurse to withhold the dose and notify the
provider.
7. A client is admitted with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which infection-control
intervention is appropriate?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Contact precautions only
C. Droplet precautions
D. Protective isolation
Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions because respiratory droplets can transmit
the causative organisms.
8. A nurse is teaching a client taking warfarin. Which food choice indicates the need for
additional teaching?
,A. White rice
B. Grilled chicken
C. Spinach salad
D. Applesauce
Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can reduce the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Clients do
not necessarily need to avoid vitamin K foods, but consistent intake is important.
9. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen. Which
prescription should the nurse question?
A. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
B. Oxygen at 2 L/min by nasal cannula
C. Position in high-Fowler's position
D. Oxygen at 15 L/min by nonrebreather mask continuously without reassessment
Excessive oxygen administration can worsen carbon dioxide retention in some clients with
COPD. Oxygen should be carefully titrated to the prescribed target saturation and clinical
condition.
10. A nurse is assessing a client who received morphine after surgery. Which finding is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Pruritus
D. Constipation
Opioids can cause life-threatening respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 8/min requires
immediate assessment and intervention.
11. A client with a suspected stroke has facial drooping and unilateral weakness. Which
information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
A. Last known well time
B. Dietary preferences
C. Immunization history
D. Previous surgical history
The time the client was last known to be neurologically normal is critical when determining
eligibility for time-sensitive stroke interventions.
12. A nurse is caring for a client receiving packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes after
initiation, the client reports chills and low back pain. What should the nurse do first?
, A. Slow the transfusion
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer acetaminophen
D. Obtain a urine specimen
Chills and back pain may indicate an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The nurse should
immediately stop the blood product and maintain IV access with appropriate compatible
solution according to protocol.
13. A nurse is assessing a client with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which finding is expected?
A. Bradycardia
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Severe hypothermia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid respirations that occur as the body attempts to
compensate for metabolic acidosis associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.
14. A client with a new colostomy asks when the stoma should normally appear. Which
response is appropriate?
A. "It should be pale and dry."
B. "It should be dark purple."
C. "It should be pink to red and moist."
D. "It should be completely flat and without drainage."
A healthy stoma is typically pink or red and moist because it contains highly vascular tissue.
Pale, dusky, purple, or black tissue may indicate impaired circulation.
15. A nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which position is
generally appropriate?
A. Flat with the neck flexed
B. Head elevated with the neck in neutral alignment
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Prone with the head rotated
Elevating the head while maintaining neutral neck alignment promotes venous drainage and
can help reduce intracranial pressure.
16. A client taking lisinopril develops swelling of the lips and tongue. Which action is the
priority?
