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ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE ADN PREDICTOR — 2026/2027 COMPLETE (100) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES

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Prepare for the ATI RN Comprehensive ADN Predictor Exam with a comprehensive study resource designed to reinforce essential nursing knowledge and clinical judgment skills. It supports review across major areas including medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, maternal-newborn care, pediatrics, mental health, leadership, prioritization, delegation, and patient safety. Use the material to strengthen NCLEX-style reasoning, improve recall, and identify areas that may require additional review before the predictor assessment. This resource is best suited for ADN nursing students preparing for the ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor and evaluating their readiness for the NCLEX-RN.

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ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE ADN PREDICTOR — 2026/2027
COMPLETE (100) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
ATI RN
Prepare for the ATI RN Comprehensive ADN Predictor Exam with a comprehensive
study resource designed to reinforce essential nursing knowledge and clinical
judgment skills. It supports review across major areas including medical-surgical
nursing, pharmacology, maternal-newborn care, pediatrics, mental health,
leadership, prioritization, delegation, and patient safety. Use the material to
strengthen NCLEX-style reasoning, improve recall, and identify areas that may require
additional review before the predictor assessment. This resource is best suited for
ADN nursing students preparing for the ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor and
evaluating their readiness for the NCLEX-RN.



MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE (Questions 1-15)
1. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for four clients. Which client should
be placed in a private room?
a) A client with pneumonia
b) A client with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
c) A client with a diabetic foot ulcer
d) A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Answer: b) A client with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA)
Rationale: MRSA requires contact isolation; a private room is essential to
prevent transmission to other clients. Pneumonia may require droplet
precautions, but MRSA-contact is the priority for single-room assignment.


2. A charge nurse assigns a float RN who usually works in postpartum to a
medical-surgical unit. Which client is most appropriate for the charge
nurse to assign to this RN?

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a) Client in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
b) Client who is postoperative day 2 following an appendectomy, stable
c) Client with a chest tube for a pneumothorax
d) Client receiving IV heparin for deep vein thrombosis
Answer: b) Client who is postoperative day 2 following an appendectomy,
stable
Rationale: A stable, low-acuity postoperative client is safest for a float nurse
from a different specialty. Complex or unstable clients (chest tube, titratable
heparin, DKA) require an RN with current experience in those areas.


3. A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is
appropriate to delegate?
a) Assess a postoperative incision
b) Teach a client how to use a walker
c) Obtain a capillary blood glucose level
d) Evaluate a client's pain level
Answer: c) Obtain a capillary blood glucose level
Rationale: APs can perform capillary blood glucose testing. Assessment,
teaching, and evaluation all require nursing judgment and fall outside the AP's
scope of practice.


4. A nurse is supervising a newly licensed nurse on a mental health unit.
For which action by the newly licensed nurse should the supervising
nurse intervene?
a) Sets boundaries with a manipulative client
b) Documents client refusals of medication
c) Tells a client he will lose phone privileges if he does not take his medication
d) Uses therapeutic communication techniques
Answer: c) Tells a client he will lose phone privileges if he does not take
his medication
Rationale: Threatening to remove privileges as a consequence for refusing
medication is coercive and violates client autonomy. This action is unethical
and can damage the therapeutic relationship.

, Page 3 of 39




5. A competent adult client refuses a blood transfusion for religious
reasons. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)
a) Verify the client understands risks
b) Document the refusal
c) Administer the transfusion if Hgb is critical
d) Notify the provider
e) Ask the family to override the decision
Answer: a, b, d — Verify the client understands risks; Document the
refusal; Notify the provider
Rationale: Competent adults have autonomy. The nurse ensures informed
refusal, documents the refusal, and notifies the provider. Administering the
transfusion against the client's wishes or asking the family to override the
decision violates client rights.


6. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin.
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the
therapeutic effect of this medication?
a) Platelet count
b) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
c) Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR)
d) Fibrinogen level
Answer: c) Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-
dependent clotting factors. PT and INR are the specific laboratory tests used
to monitor warfarin therapy. The therapeutic INR range for most indications is
2.0-3.0. Platelet count is monitored for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
aPTT is monitored for heparin therapy.


7. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a
thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate
intervention?
a) Pain level of 4 on a scale of 0-10

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b) Hoarse voice
c) Serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL
d) Paresthesia of the lips and fingers
Answer: d) Paresthesia of the lips and fingers
Rationale: Paresthesia of the lips and fingers is an early sign of hypocalcemia,
which can occur if the parathyroid glands were inadvertently removed or
damaged during thyroidectomy. This can lead to life-threatening tetany. A
hoarse voice is expected due to laryngeal nerve irritation. A calcium level of
8.0 mg/dL is below normal (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) but the paresthesia indicates
active symptoms requiring immediate intervention.


8. A nurse is planning a teaching session for a client who is postoperative
following a colon resection. Which action should the nurse take first?
a) Providing written material for the client to read
b) Plan a short instruction about coughing and deep breathing
c) Determine the client's current pain level
d) Instruct the client about dietary restrictions
Answer: c) Determine the client's current pain level
Rationale: Before teaching can be effective, the nurse must first address the
client's comfort. A client in pain will be unable to focus and retain information.
Pain assessment is the priority.


9. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which
dietary recommendation should the nurse make?
a) Coffee with creamer
b) Lettuce with sliced avocados
c) Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
d) Warm toast with margarine
Answer: c) Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
Rationale: Clients with chronic pancreatitis need a low-fat, high-protein diet.
Broiled skinless chicken provides lean protein, and brown rice is a complex
carbohydrate with low fat content. High-fat foods like creamer, avocado, and
margarine can exacerbate symptoms.

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