NURS 1O1/102/202
NUR110.
NURSING
Nurse wiseman 2026/2027 NURS
, NURS 305 Exam questions with correct
answers 2026/2027 Edition Graded A+
Q1. A patient is brought to the emergency department with suspected
carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning after being found unresponsive in a
garage. The nurse understands that CO poisoning causes decreased
oxygenation primarily because: 1. CO destroys red blood cells,
reducing their total number. 2. CO binds strongly to hemoglobin,
preventing it from carrying oxygen. 3. CO increases airway resistance,
blocking oxygen from reaching the alveoli. 4. CO causes alveolar
collapse, reducing the surface area for gas exchange. - Answer
Answer: 2. CO binds strongly to hemoglobin, preventing
it from carrying oxygen. | Rationale: Carbon monoxide creates a
functional anemia by binding to hemoglobin far more strongly than
oxygen does, making hemoglobin unavailable for O2 transport. The
lungs are not directly obstructed and red blood cell count is not
reduced.
Q2. The nurse is preparing to administer supplemental oxygen to a
newly admitted patient with mild respiratory distress. Which oxygen
delivery device should the nurse apply first? 1. Non-rebreather mask. 2.
Venturi mask. 3. Nasal cannula. 4. Simple face mask. - Answer
Answer: 3. Nasal cannula. | Rationale: A nasal cannula is
the first-line, least restrictive O2 device for patients needing low-to-
moderate flow supplemental oxygen. Non-rebreather masks and
Venturi masks are used when higher or more precise FiO2 is required.
,Q3. The nurse is caring for a patient in respiratory distress who
requires the highest possible concentration of oxygen. Which device
should the nurse apply? 1. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min. 2. Simple face
mask at 8 L/min. 3. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min. 4. Venturi mask
at 28%. - Answer Answer: 3. Non-rebreather mask at
15 L/min. | Rationale: A non-rebreather mask with a properly inflated
reservoir bag delivers up to 80-95% FiO2 and is the emergency device
of choice requiring the highest oxygen concentration before
intubation.
Q4. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen therapy. The nurse
notices the patient's respiratory rate has decreased significantly.
Which action should the nurse take first? 1. Increase the oxygen flow
rate to 5 L/min. 2. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths. 3.
Reduce the oxygen flow rate and reassess the patient. 4. Notify the
provider and document the finding. - Answer
Answer: 3. Reduce the oxygen flow rate and reassess the patient. |
Rationale: Patients with COPD rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe.
Administering oxygen above 24-28% (1-3 L/min) can suppress this drive,
causing hypoventilation and CO2 retention. The immediate action is to
reduce flow and reassess.
Q5. A patient is admitted with chest pain. Assessment reveals the pain
has lasted 25 minutes, is not relieved by nitroglycerin, and radiates to
the left jaw and arm. The nurse recognizes these findings as most
consistent with: 1. Stable angina pectoris. 2. Myocardial infarction. 3.
Pleuritic chest pain. 4. Pericarditis. - Answer Answer:
2. Myocardial infarction. | Rationale: MI pain typically lasts more than
, 20 minutes, radiates to the left arm, jaw, or back, and is NOT relieved
by rest or nitroglycerin. Angina lasts 3-5 minutes and resolves with rest
or nitrates. Pleuritic pain worsens with breathing.
Q6. A patient reports chest pain that started during exercise, lasts
about 4 minutes, and goes away completely with rest. The nurse
identifies this pattern as most consistent with: 1. Myocardial
infarction. 2. Right-sided heart failure. 3. Angina pectoris. 4. Pulmonary
embolism. - Answer Answer: 3. Angina pectoris. |
Rationale: Angina is transient chest pain from myocardial oxygen
supply-demand mismatch, typically lasting 3-5 minutes and relieved by
rest or nitroglycerin. MI pain lasts more than 20 minutes and is not
relieved by rest.
Q7 (SATA). The nurse assesses a patient with left-sided heart failure.
Which findings does the nurse expect? Select all that apply. 1. Crackles
in the lung bases. 2. Distended neck veins. 3. Paroxysmal nocturnal
dyspnea. 4. Dependent peripheral edema. 5. Shortness of breath on
exertion. - Answer Answer: 1, 3, 5. Crackles in the
lung bases; Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea; Shortness of breath on
exertion. | Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up
into the pulmonary circulation, producing crackles, SOB on exertion,
and PND. Distended neck veins and peripheral edema are signs of
right-sided heart failure (systemic backup).
Q8. A patient with right-sided heart failure is admitted to the unit. The
nurse anticipates which clinical findings? 1. Crackles in the lung bases
and orthopnea. 2. Peripheral edema and distended neck veins. 3.
NUR110.
NURSING
Nurse wiseman 2026/2027 NURS
, NURS 305 Exam questions with correct
answers 2026/2027 Edition Graded A+
Q1. A patient is brought to the emergency department with suspected
carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning after being found unresponsive in a
garage. The nurse understands that CO poisoning causes decreased
oxygenation primarily because: 1. CO destroys red blood cells,
reducing their total number. 2. CO binds strongly to hemoglobin,
preventing it from carrying oxygen. 3. CO increases airway resistance,
blocking oxygen from reaching the alveoli. 4. CO causes alveolar
collapse, reducing the surface area for gas exchange. - Answer
Answer: 2. CO binds strongly to hemoglobin, preventing
it from carrying oxygen. | Rationale: Carbon monoxide creates a
functional anemia by binding to hemoglobin far more strongly than
oxygen does, making hemoglobin unavailable for O2 transport. The
lungs are not directly obstructed and red blood cell count is not
reduced.
Q2. The nurse is preparing to administer supplemental oxygen to a
newly admitted patient with mild respiratory distress. Which oxygen
delivery device should the nurse apply first? 1. Non-rebreather mask. 2.
Venturi mask. 3. Nasal cannula. 4. Simple face mask. - Answer
Answer: 3. Nasal cannula. | Rationale: A nasal cannula is
the first-line, least restrictive O2 device for patients needing low-to-
moderate flow supplemental oxygen. Non-rebreather masks and
Venturi masks are used when higher or more precise FiO2 is required.
,Q3. The nurse is caring for a patient in respiratory distress who
requires the highest possible concentration of oxygen. Which device
should the nurse apply? 1. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min. 2. Simple face
mask at 8 L/min. 3. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min. 4. Venturi mask
at 28%. - Answer Answer: 3. Non-rebreather mask at
15 L/min. | Rationale: A non-rebreather mask with a properly inflated
reservoir bag delivers up to 80-95% FiO2 and is the emergency device
of choice requiring the highest oxygen concentration before
intubation.
Q4. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen therapy. The nurse
notices the patient's respiratory rate has decreased significantly.
Which action should the nurse take first? 1. Increase the oxygen flow
rate to 5 L/min. 2. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths. 3.
Reduce the oxygen flow rate and reassess the patient. 4. Notify the
provider and document the finding. - Answer
Answer: 3. Reduce the oxygen flow rate and reassess the patient. |
Rationale: Patients with COPD rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe.
Administering oxygen above 24-28% (1-3 L/min) can suppress this drive,
causing hypoventilation and CO2 retention. The immediate action is to
reduce flow and reassess.
Q5. A patient is admitted with chest pain. Assessment reveals the pain
has lasted 25 minutes, is not relieved by nitroglycerin, and radiates to
the left jaw and arm. The nurse recognizes these findings as most
consistent with: 1. Stable angina pectoris. 2. Myocardial infarction. 3.
Pleuritic chest pain. 4. Pericarditis. - Answer Answer:
2. Myocardial infarction. | Rationale: MI pain typically lasts more than
, 20 minutes, radiates to the left arm, jaw, or back, and is NOT relieved
by rest or nitroglycerin. Angina lasts 3-5 minutes and resolves with rest
or nitrates. Pleuritic pain worsens with breathing.
Q6. A patient reports chest pain that started during exercise, lasts
about 4 minutes, and goes away completely with rest. The nurse
identifies this pattern as most consistent with: 1. Myocardial
infarction. 2. Right-sided heart failure. 3. Angina pectoris. 4. Pulmonary
embolism. - Answer Answer: 3. Angina pectoris. |
Rationale: Angina is transient chest pain from myocardial oxygen
supply-demand mismatch, typically lasting 3-5 minutes and relieved by
rest or nitroglycerin. MI pain lasts more than 20 minutes and is not
relieved by rest.
Q7 (SATA). The nurse assesses a patient with left-sided heart failure.
Which findings does the nurse expect? Select all that apply. 1. Crackles
in the lung bases. 2. Distended neck veins. 3. Paroxysmal nocturnal
dyspnea. 4. Dependent peripheral edema. 5. Shortness of breath on
exertion. - Answer Answer: 1, 3, 5. Crackles in the
lung bases; Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea; Shortness of breath on
exertion. | Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up
into the pulmonary circulation, producing crackles, SOB on exertion,
and PND. Distended neck veins and peripheral edema are signs of
right-sided heart failure (systemic backup).
Q8. A patient with right-sided heart failure is admitted to the unit. The
nurse anticipates which clinical findings? 1. Crackles in the lung bases
and orthopnea. 2. Peripheral edema and distended neck veins. 3.
