NUR 170 MED SURG EXAM 2: COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE
EXAMINATION STUDY GUIDE | LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027 | ACTUAL
EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | EXAM REVIEW | 100%
CORRECT ANSWERS
INTRODUCTION
This comprehensive practice examination is designed for nursing
students preparing for the NUR 170 Concepts of Medical-Surgical
Nursing Exam 2 at Galen College of Nursing. Exam 2 typically covers
foundational medical-surgical concepts, including neurological and
sensory disorders (migraines, seizures, stroke, increased ICP, eye
disorders), respiratory disorders (COPD, pneumonia, TB,
asthma), cardiovascular disorders, renal and hepatic
dysfunction, endocrine and metabolic disorders, fluid and electrolyte
balance, and perioperative nursing care. Questions are written at the
level expected for the official Galen College nursing exams, emphasizing
clinical judgment, prioritization, patient safety, pharmacology
integration, and evidence-based practice. This resource is intended to
help candidates assess their readiness, identify knowledge gaps, and
strengthen their preparation for the certification examination.
TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. Neurological Disorders: Migraines, Seizures, and Stroke
2. Increased Intracranial Pressure and Neurological Assessment
3. Sensory Disorders: Eye and Ear Conditions
, 4. Respiratory Disorders: COPD, Pneumonia, Asthma, and TB
5. Cardiovascular Disorders
6. Renal and Hepatic Dysfunction
7. Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
8. Perioperative Nursing Care
9. Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
10. Pharmacology Integration and Priority Interventions
UNIT 1 – NEUROLOGICAL DISORDERS: MIGRAINES, SEIZURES, AND
STROKE
1. The nurse is caring for a client who has a history of migraines.
Which clinical manifestation would the nurse identify as an aura?
A) Vertigo
B) Visual disturbances
C) Lethargy
D) Numbness of the tongue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A migraine aura is a reversible neurologic symptom that
precedes or accompanies the headache, most commonly visual
disturbances such as flashing lights, scotomas, or zigzag lines. Vertigo,
lethargy, and tongue numbness are not typical aura manifestations.
2. A client begins to experience a tonic-clonic seizure and loss of
consciousness. What action would the nurse take first?
A) Start fluids via a large-bore catheter
, B) Administer IV push diazepam
C) Turn the client's head to the side
D) Prepare to intubate the client
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority is to protect the
airway and prevent aspiration by turning the client's head to the side. IV
diazepam may be administered later to stop seizure activity, but airway
protection is the immediate priority.
3. Which of the following is a characteristic finding in a client
experiencing a migraine headache?
A) Bilateral, dull pain
B) Throbbing, unilateral pain
C) Constant, pressure-like pain
D) Sharp, stabbing pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Migraine pain is typically throbbing and unilateral. It is often
accompanied by nausea, photophobia (sensitivity to light), and
phonophobia (sensitivity to sound). Migraines typically last 4-72 hours
and pain worsens with movement.
4. A client with a history of migraines is prescribed a triptan
medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
A) "I will take this medication at the start of my migraine."
B) "I should report any chest pain to my provider."
C) "I can take this with my SSRI antidepressant."
D) "I may experience flushing or tingling sensations."
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Triptans should NOT be mixed with SSRIs due to the risk of
serotonin syndrome. They should be taken at the start of a migraine
(abortive therapy), and clients should report any chest pain. Flushing
and tingling sensations are common side effects.
5. The nurse is teaching a client about preventive (prophylactic)
therapy for migraines. Which medication would the nurse
include?
A) Sumatriptan
B) Ibuprofen
C) Propranolol
D) Ergotamine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker used for preventive therapy in
migraines. Other preventive medications include calcium channel
blockers (verapamil), anti-convulsants (topiramate), and anti-
depressants (nortriptyline). Sumatriptan, ibuprofen, and ergotamine are
abortive (acute) treatments.
6. Which patient would the nurse identify as being at highest risk for
stroke?
A) A 45-year-old with well-controlled hypertension
B) A 68-year-old with atrial fibrillation
C) A 55-year-old with a family history of stroke
D) A 60-year-old with high cholesterol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is a major risk factor for stroke due to the
risk of thrombus formation in the atria. Advanced age, hypertension,
EXAMINATION STUDY GUIDE | LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027 | ACTUAL
EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | EXAM REVIEW | 100%
CORRECT ANSWERS
INTRODUCTION
This comprehensive practice examination is designed for nursing
students preparing for the NUR 170 Concepts of Medical-Surgical
Nursing Exam 2 at Galen College of Nursing. Exam 2 typically covers
foundational medical-surgical concepts, including neurological and
sensory disorders (migraines, seizures, stroke, increased ICP, eye
disorders), respiratory disorders (COPD, pneumonia, TB,
asthma), cardiovascular disorders, renal and hepatic
dysfunction, endocrine and metabolic disorders, fluid and electrolyte
balance, and perioperative nursing care. Questions are written at the
level expected for the official Galen College nursing exams, emphasizing
clinical judgment, prioritization, patient safety, pharmacology
integration, and evidence-based practice. This resource is intended to
help candidates assess their readiness, identify knowledge gaps, and
strengthen their preparation for the certification examination.
TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. Neurological Disorders: Migraines, Seizures, and Stroke
2. Increased Intracranial Pressure and Neurological Assessment
3. Sensory Disorders: Eye and Ear Conditions
, 4. Respiratory Disorders: COPD, Pneumonia, Asthma, and TB
5. Cardiovascular Disorders
6. Renal and Hepatic Dysfunction
7. Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
8. Perioperative Nursing Care
9. Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
10. Pharmacology Integration and Priority Interventions
UNIT 1 – NEUROLOGICAL DISORDERS: MIGRAINES, SEIZURES, AND
STROKE
1. The nurse is caring for a client who has a history of migraines.
Which clinical manifestation would the nurse identify as an aura?
A) Vertigo
B) Visual disturbances
C) Lethargy
D) Numbness of the tongue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A migraine aura is a reversible neurologic symptom that
precedes or accompanies the headache, most commonly visual
disturbances such as flashing lights, scotomas, or zigzag lines. Vertigo,
lethargy, and tongue numbness are not typical aura manifestations.
2. A client begins to experience a tonic-clonic seizure and loss of
consciousness. What action would the nurse take first?
A) Start fluids via a large-bore catheter
, B) Administer IV push diazepam
C) Turn the client's head to the side
D) Prepare to intubate the client
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority is to protect the
airway and prevent aspiration by turning the client's head to the side. IV
diazepam may be administered later to stop seizure activity, but airway
protection is the immediate priority.
3. Which of the following is a characteristic finding in a client
experiencing a migraine headache?
A) Bilateral, dull pain
B) Throbbing, unilateral pain
C) Constant, pressure-like pain
D) Sharp, stabbing pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Migraine pain is typically throbbing and unilateral. It is often
accompanied by nausea, photophobia (sensitivity to light), and
phonophobia (sensitivity to sound). Migraines typically last 4-72 hours
and pain worsens with movement.
4. A client with a history of migraines is prescribed a triptan
medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
A) "I will take this medication at the start of my migraine."
B) "I should report any chest pain to my provider."
C) "I can take this with my SSRI antidepressant."
D) "I may experience flushing or tingling sensations."
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Triptans should NOT be mixed with SSRIs due to the risk of
serotonin syndrome. They should be taken at the start of a migraine
(abortive therapy), and clients should report any chest pain. Flushing
and tingling sensations are common side effects.
5. The nurse is teaching a client about preventive (prophylactic)
therapy for migraines. Which medication would the nurse
include?
A) Sumatriptan
B) Ibuprofen
C) Propranolol
D) Ergotamine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker used for preventive therapy in
migraines. Other preventive medications include calcium channel
blockers (verapamil), anti-convulsants (topiramate), and anti-
depressants (nortriptyline). Sumatriptan, ibuprofen, and ergotamine are
abortive (acute) treatments.
6. Which patient would the nurse identify as being at highest risk for
stroke?
A) A 45-year-old with well-controlled hypertension
B) A 68-year-old with atrial fibrillation
C) A 55-year-old with a family history of stroke
D) A 60-year-old with high cholesterol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is a major risk factor for stroke due to the
risk of thrombus formation in the atria. Advanced age, hypertension,
