Galen NUR 283 (NUR283) Transition to Registered Nursing Practice – Comp 2 Exam | Complete Questions & Answers | 100% Updated 2026–2027.

Complete Galen College of Nursing NUR 283 (NUR283) Transition to Registered Nursing Practice – Comp 2 Exam resource featuring organized questions and answers for focused comprehensive-exam preparation. Designed to support efficient review of key course concepts and Comp 2 material. Latest 100% updated for 2026–2027. 1. Which situation is an example of nursing negligence? A. Failing to communicate concerns about a confused older adult being discharged home B. Touching a client without permission C. Threatening to touch a client without consent D. Writing a false statement that harms a client 2. Which statement correctly distinguishes slander from libel? A. Slander is spoken; libel is written B. Slander is written; libel is spoken C. Both terms mean unintentional negligence D. Both terms mean physical touching 3. Which action constitutes battery? A. Threatening to touch the client B. Writing a harmful false statement C. Failing to report a safety concern D. Touching a client without consent 4. Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to a UAP? A. Measure and record routine intake and output for a stable client B. Teach a new ostomy-care procedure C. Evaluate a client's response to treatment D. Perform the initial assessment 5. Which delegated action requires RN intervention? A. A UAP reminding a stable client about a scheduled activity B. A UAP recording urine output C. A UAP assisting a client out of bed for the first time two hours after paracentesis D. A UAP making an occupied bed 6. Which task may the RN delegate to an LPN/LVN? A. Complete the admission nursing assessment B. Provide the initial diabetes teaching C. Obtain a capillary blood glucose reading for a diaphoretic client D. Develop the initial plan of care 7. Which admission task may the RN assign to an LPN/LVN? A. Collect the past medical history of a client admitted with cellulitis B. Perform the initial comprehensive RN assessment C. Formulate nursing diagnoses D. Create the plan of care 8. A nurse suspects abuse of a vulnerable client. What action is required? A. Promise that no report will be made B. Discuss the concern only with visitors C. Protect the client from immediate harm and report the suspicion D. Wait for the suspected abuser to confess 9. Which finding is identified as a possible sign of child physical abuse? A. A healed superficial knee abrasion B. Clean clothing and treated dental caries C. A spiral fracture with bilateral hand burns and welts on the back D. Age-appropriate play 10. Which older adult requires follow-up for possible neglect or abuse? A. An adult with clean glasses and current medications B. A 72-year-old living with a caregiver who has several stage 3 pressure injuries C. An adult with stable weight and good hydration D. An independent adult with intact skin 11. Which referral is appropriate for a client after total knee replacement who needs walker instruction? A. Physical therapy B. Hospice C. Speech therapy D. Public health STI services 12. A client with Parkinson disease has difficulty dressing and feeding. Which referral is most appropriate? A. Hospice for routine ADL training B. Occupational therapy C. Speech therapy for medication administration D. Physical therapy for airway management 13. A client with COPD develops dysphagia. Which discipline should be consulted? A. Occupational therapy only B. Physical therapy C. Environmental services D. Speech therapy 14. Which client is most appropriate for a hospice referral? A. A client seeking vaccination counseling only B. A client requiring short-term walker training C. A client with terminal cancer who needs home pain-management support D. A client needing a routine blood glucose check 15. Which client should be referred to an outside public health agency? A. A 27-year-old admitted with a confirmed sexually transmitted infection B. A client learning to use crutches C. A client requiring ostomy teaching D. A client needing a hearing-aid battery 16. Which assessment pattern is expected with atrial fibrillation? A. A flat line without electrical activity B. A regular rate below 60 with normal P waves C. Regular rhythm with identical P waves D. Irregular rhythm with no distinct P waves and no measurable PR interval 17. Why is anticoagulation commonly used for atrial fibrillation? A. It treats head lice B. Atrial fibrillation increases clot risk that can lead to MI, PE, stroke, or DVT C. It prevents every form of bradycardia D. It eliminates all bleeding risk 18. Which finding is expected in hepatic encephalopathy? A. Isolated hearing loss B. Confusion, asterixis, jaundice, pruritus, and elevated liver enzymes C. Clear mentation with no neurologic changes D. Increased clotting-factor production 19. Which change in a client with hepatic encephalopathy requires immediate provider notification? A. The client requests a meal B. The client reports mild hunger C. The client asks for help bathing D. The client becomes unresponsive or develops a seizure 20. Which treatment plan is identified for reducing ammonia in end-stage cirrhosis with encephalopathy? A. Increase acetaminophen use B. Stop lactulose and increase ammonia-producing foods C. Reduce protein intake and administer lactulose D. Administer a live vaccine 21. Which client should the nurse assess first? A. A stable client awaiting discharge papers B. A 15-year-old with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, lung crackles, and neck-vein distention C. A client asking for a clean blanket D. A client requesting routine diet teaching 22. Which technique is appropriate for a Z-track intramuscular injection? A. Insert at 15 degrees without displacing skin B. Massage the site before needle entry C. Release the skin before medication is injected D. Hold the skin displaced and insert the needle at a 90-degree angle 23. Which intervention protects fragile skin during IV insertion in an older adult? A. Use the arm with an arteriovenous fistula B. Place a soft cloth between the skin and tourniquet C. Apply circumferential adhesive tape D. Tighten the tourniquet directly on bare skin 24. Which action is appropriate when discontinuing a peripheral IV? A. Wear clean gloves B. Use bare hands C. Cut the catheter before removal D. Pull the catheter without assessing the site 25. Which preparation is appropriate before initiating a blood transfusion? A. Skip identification if the blood type is visible B. Use dextrose solution to prime the tubing C. Begin without inspecting the blood product D. Assess cardiovascular status, obtain baseline vital signs, and verify the blood with another nurse 26. Which fluid should be used with blood through Y-type tubing? A. Sterile water B. Lactated Ringer solution in the same tubing C. 0.9% sodium chloride D. 5% dextrose in water 27. How long should one unit of packed red blood cells be infused according to the review? A. Exactly 8 hours B. About 3 hours and never longer than 4 hours C. More than 6 hours D. Less than 10 minutes 28. A client develops chills, flushing, hives, and back pain during a transfusion. What is the priority action? A. Discard the blood bag and tubing immediately B. Increase the blood flow rate C. Continue the transfusion while documenting D. Stop the transfusion and begin normal saline with new tubing 29. How should the nurse maintain a sterile field? A. Turn away from the field repeatedly B. Reach across the sterile field C. Keep it at waist level or above and treat the outer 1-inch border as contaminated D. Allow hands to fall below waist 30. A client asks, "Can I refuse ECT tomorrow even though I signed consent?" What is the correct response? A. No. Consent removes the right to refuse B. Only family members may withdraw consent C. Refusal is allowed only after treatment begins D. Yes. You retain the right to refuse treatment even after signing consent 31. Which home instruction is appropriate for pediculosis capitis? A. Seal nonwashable items in an airtight plastic bag for 14 days B. Share combs after rinsing them in cold water C. Treat all household pets with permethrin D. Leave carpets and upholstery uncleaned 32. How should combs and hairbrushes be cleaned after head-lice treatment? A. Soak them in boiling water for 10 minutes B. Store them unwashed for one day C. Share them with family members D. Wipe them once with a dry towel 33. Which approach is appropriate for a client with dementia? A. Argue until the client accepts reality B. Acknowledge feelings and redirect the client toward an activity C. Dismiss the client's feelings D. Use restraints before trying alarms 34. Which safety intervention should generally be tried before restraints for a client with dementia? A. Immediate wrist restraints B. Four raised side rails C. Chair or bed alarms D. A quick-release tie to a movable side rail 35. A nurse realizes that a double medication dose was administered. What should the nurse do first? A. Assess the client for adverse effects B. Inform the next shift before assessing C. Wait for the client to report symptoms D. Complete the incident report first 36. Which event requires completion of an incident report? A. A client takes a scheduled medication without difficulty B. A client requests a diet change C. A client develops phlebitis from an IV catheter and requires antibiotics D. A client receives routine discharge teaching 37. Which documentation practice is correct after an incident? A. Chart objective client findings and care, but do not chart that an incident report was completed B. Photograph the wound for the incident report without authorization C. Place the incident report in the medical record D. Omit the clinical event from the chart 38. Which precautions are appropriate for a client with influenza? A. Protective isolation for neutropenia B. No precautions C. Airborne precautions with only a negative-pressure room D. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask and appropriate eye protection 39. Which plan is appropriate for a client with tuberculosis? A. Use only clean gloves in a positive-pressure room B. Apply droplet precautions only C. Use an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room with the door closed D. Keep the door open and use no mask 40. Which condition is listed under contact precautions? A. Measles B. Tuberculosis C. Pertussis D. Clostridioides difficile infection 41. Which factor is a modifiable colorectal-cancer risk? A. Family history B. Age C. Inherited risk D. Obesity, alcohol use, or tobacco use 42. A pregnant client has a negative rubella titer. Which teaching is correct? A. The negative result confirms current rubella infection B. The rubella vaccine should be given after delivery rather than during pregnancy C. The vaccine should be administered immediately during pregnancy D. No vaccination is ever needed 43. Which client should not receive a live vaccine according to the Comp 2 review? A. A healthy adult with no contraindications B. A client using a hearing aid C. A client with a healed superficial wound D. A client receiving chemotherapy or immunosuppressive therapy 44. Which vaccine is identified in the practice bank for an 18-year-old during a precollege examination? A. Hepatitis B vaccine as the only possible choice B. Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine C. Meningococcal polysaccharide vaccine D. Varicella vaccine regardless of history 45. Which finding in a client with a fiberglass cast requires follow-up? A. Use of a cool hair-dryer setting for itching B. Warmth around the cast accompanied by an unpleasant odor C. Elevation above heart level during the first 48 hours D. Ice applied as instructed during the first 24 to 48 hours 46. Which initial goal is appropriate for a client in a severe bipolar depressive episode? A. Increase group stimulation B. Restore the client's nutritional status C. Encourage risky spending D. Promote sleep deprivation 47. Which intervention is appropriate during an acute manic episode? A. Encourage competitive group activities B. Place the client in a noisy group area C. Negotiate every safety limit D. Reduce stimulation, provide one-to-one structure, and set firm limits 48. Which food plan is appropriate for a highly active manic client? A. A fasting diet B. Low-calorie foods with restricted fluids C. High-calorie, high-protein foods and adequate fluids that can be eaten on the go D. Only caffeinated beverages 49. A grieving client says, "I just want to see my son graduate." Which stage is reflected? A. Denial B. Acceptance C. Bargaining D. Anger 50. Which ABG pattern indicates metabolic acidosis? A. Low pH with high carbon dioxide B. Low pH with low bicarbonate C. High pH with low carbon dioxide D. High pH with high bicarbonate 51. Which ABG pattern indicates metabolic alkalosis? A. Low pH with high carbon dioxide B. Low pH with low bicarbonate C. High pH with low carbon dioxide D. High pH with high bicarbonate 52. Which ABG pattern indicates respiratory acidosis? A. Low pH with high carbon dioxide B. Low pH with low bicarbonate C. High pH with low carbon dioxide D. High pH with high bicarbonate 53. Which ABG pattern indicates respiratory alkalosis? A. Low pH with low bicarbonate B. High pH with high bicarbonate C. Low pH with high carbon dioxide D. High pH with low carbon dioxide 54. Which assessment pattern is expected in hypovolemic shock? A. Warm dry skin with no perfusion change B. Hypotension with tachycardia and a rising pulse rate C. Hypertension with bradycardia D. Stable pulse with increasing urine output 55. Which treatment sequence is anticipated for hypovolemic shock? A. Give vasopressors before addressing volume loss B. Delay circulation support until discharge C. Provide oxygen and isotonic fluids, blood if needed, then vasopressors after fluid replacement D. Restrict fluid and withhold oxygen 56. Which blood loss meets the review's definition of postpartum hemorrhage? A. 100 mL after vaginal birth only B. Any normal lochia C. 50 mL after either birth D. At least 500 mL after vaginal birth or 1,000 mL after cesarean birth 57. A client four hours after vaginal birth saturates a perineal pad in 10 minutes. What should the nurse do first? A. Massage the uterine fundus B. Document the bleeding as expected C. Encourage the client to walk alone D. Wait another hour 58. Which supportive interventions are identified for postpartum hemorrhage? A. Delay vital-sign monitoring B. Restrict oxygen and lower the legs C. Maintain the airway, give oxygen by nonrebreather, elevate the legs, and prepare fluids or blood D. Remove IV access 59. Which finding is an adverse response to neonatal phototherapy? A. Eye shields removed during feeding B. Gray-brown skin discoloration or sunken fontanels C. Repositioning every two hours D. Loose green stools without other deterioration 60. Before treating a rhythm displayed on the monitor, what should the nurse do first? A. Treat the monitor strip without seeing the client B. Assess the client for symptoms and determine whether a pulse is present C. Delay assessment until the rhythm changes D. Assume every rhythm has a pulse 61. Which treatment is identified for ventricular tachycardia when a pulse is present? A. Treatment for head lice B. Oral lactulose only C. No monitoring or resuscitation equipment D. Amiodarone with preparation for synchronized cardioversion 62. Which action is indicated when ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia is identified? A. Use only synchronized cardioversion without assessing the pulse B. Wait for a P wave to appear C. Begin resuscitation and prepare for defibrillation D. Administer a routine diet 63. A client has symptomatic severe bradycardia. Which intervention appears in the practice bank? A. Connect the client to a transcutaneous pacemaker B. Defibrillate with no assessment C. Measure only jugular-vein distention D. Give magnesium sulfate for all bradycardia 64. Which teaching is required for a client with a mechanical prosthetic heart valve? A. Long-term anticoagulation with PT/INR monitoring and bleeding precautions B. Antibiotics replace all anticoagulants C. No anticoagulation is needed D. The valve lasts only 8 to 10 years 65. Which finding is the priority in a client with multiple sclerosis? A. Planning rest periods B. Coughing while eating breakfast C. Avoiding stress D. Requesting a cool room 66. Which description reflects a healthy postoperative colostomy stoma? A. Purple and dusky B. Cold, pale, gray, and dry C. Black with no moisture D. Red or pink, moist, shiny, and beefy in appearance 67. Which colostomy finding requires provider notification? A. A moist red stoma B. A pouch emptied when one-third full C. Use of warm tap water for ordered irrigation D. A cold, pale, gray, purple, or dusky stoma 68. Which plan helps decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury? A. Increase stimulation and cluster every procedure B. Use a quiet environment, avoid clustered care and hip flexion, elevate the head about 30 degrees, and logroll C. Place the client flat and twist during turns D. Flex the hips sharply 69. Which finding after a head injury is an emergency? A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 B. Use of spinal alignment C. A halo sign suggesting cerebrospinal-fluid leakage D. A request for quiet 70. Which instruction is appropriate for lumbar puncture care? A. Keep the spine twisted during the procedure B. Encourage walking immediately afterward C. Ignore headache or fluid leakage D. Have the client empty the bladder before the procedure and remain supine afterward 71. Using the adult rule of nines, what percentage is burned when the anterior surfaces of both arms and the entire anterior trunk are involved? A. 27% B. 18% C. 9% D. 45% 72. Which expression represents the Parkland formula in the supplied review? A. 4 mL multiplied by body weight in kilograms multiplied by percent total body-surface area burned B. 1 mL multiplied by age only C. Body weight divided by respiratory rate D. 10 mL multiplied by heart rate 73. Which finding is the priority to report for a client with full-thickness burns over 35% of the lower body? A. A scheduled dressing change B. A question about the rule of nines C. Oxygen saturation of 89% D. A request for wound teaching 74. A postoperative abdominal wound eviscerates. What should the nurse do? A. Cover the organs with a saline-moistened dressing, stay with the client, and call for help B. Push the organs back into the abdomen C. Apply a dry abrasive dressing D. Leave the client alone to get supplies 75. Which action is appropriate for a Jackson-Pratt or Hemovac drain? A. Ignore sudden output changes B. Leave the reservoir expanded C. Let it hang freely D. Keep it compressed and secured to the gown; report no output for a shift or unexpectedly high output 76. A client is newly admitted with obsessive-compulsive disorder. What should the nurse assess first? A. Ways to stop every ritual immediately B. Precipitating factors for the client's ritualistic behaviors C. Whether restraints can be applied D. The client's ability to lead a competitive group 77. Before transferring a client from bed to chair, what should the nurse do first? A. Move the client immediately B. Position the chair without evaluating mobility C. Determine whether the client can bear weight D. Place the transfer belt before assessment 78. Which pattern is associated with gastric-ulcer pain? A. Pain has no relationship to meals B. Pain occurs only during exercise C. Pain is always relieved immediately by food D. Pain increases with food and occurs about 30 to 60 minutes after meals 79. Which finding in a client with peptic-ulcer disease requires immediate reporting? A. Stable vital signs B. A request for bland food C. A rigid boardlike abdomen with rebound tenderness and fever D. Mild hunger before lunch 80. Which manifestation suggests gastrointestinal hemorrhage from peptic-ulcer disease? A. Clear urine B. Melena or hematemesis C. Dry hair D. A normal appetite 81. Which diet instruction is appropriate for dumping syndrome? A. Choose high-protein complex carbohydrates, avoid sweets and caffeine, and do not drink fluids with meals B. Increase simple sugars with every meal C. Use a low-protein diet D. Drink large amounts of fluid while eating 82. What should a client with dumping syndrome do after eating? A. Lie down for 20 to 30 minutes B. Drink several glasses of fluid C. Remain standing for two hours D. Exercise vigorously 83. Which dietary plan is identified for diverticulosis? A. A high-fat low-fiber diet B. Only spicy foods C. A high-fiber or high-residue diet D. A strict fasting plan 84. Which diet is appropriate for Crohn's disease according to the review? A. Low calorie and low protein B. High fiber with raw vegetables and caffeine C. Only dairy and whole grains D. Low fiber, high calorie, and high protein 85. A client receiving chemotherapy has reduced appetite and taste changes. Which meal is the best choice? A. Scrambled eggs, steamed carrots, and applesauce B. Caesar salad with anchovies, croutons, and creamy dressing C. Spicy chili with hot sauce D. Mashed potatoes with fried chicken and chocolate pudding 86. Which hearing-aid cleaning instruction is correct? A. Soak the entire device overnight B. Clean it with warm water and mild soap while avoiding excessive wetting C. Use boiling water D. Clean it only when headaches occur 87. Which hearing-aid statement requires follow-up? A. I will lower the volume if I hear high-pitched feedback B. I will keep a spare battery C. I will turn it off when not in use D. I will keep the hearing aid at the highest volume setting 88. Which teaching is appropriate for sublingual nitroglycerin? A. Keep the same supply indefinitely B. Take it while seated, store it away from light at room temperature, and avoid erectile-dysfunction drugs C. Use it with sildenafil D. Take it while walking and store it in sunlight 89. Which finding should be reported for a client taking aripiprazole? A. Agranulocytosis B. Expected mild thirst C. Normal appetite D. A request for routine exercise 90. Which statement by a client taking carbamazepine demonstrates correct understanding? A. I will stop all laboratory monitoring B. I will use no birth-control precautions C. I will notify my provider immediately if I develop a sore throat D. I can ignore signs of infection 91. A peripheral IV site becomes red, warm, and painful. What should the nurse do first? A. Stop the infusion B. Cover the site and continue C. Increase the infusion rate D. Wait until the medication is completed 92. Which finding indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity? A. Respiratory rate of 10/min with absent deep-tendon reflexes B. Adequate urine output C. Normal reflexes and respirations D. A pulse of 80/min 93. Which medication is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity? A. Flumazenil B. Permethrin C. Calcium gluconate D. Lactulose 94. Which action is appropriate for total parenteral nutrition containing more than 10% dextrose? A. Administer it through a central line and check blood glucose every 6 hours B. Infuse it through any line without glucose monitoring C. Give it by intramuscular injection D. Stop it abruptly without an order 95. Which TPN finding should the nurse report? A. The client requests mouth care B. An oral temperature above 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit C. A prescribed new bag arrives D. The infusion is connected to the ordered central line 96. Which finding indicates a therapeutic response to desmopressin acetate for diabetes insipidus? A. Blood pressure falls to 80/62 mm Hg B. Urine output increases to 7,000 mL C. Urine output decreases from 5,000 mL to 2,000 mL in 24 hours D. Pulse rises from 90 to 150/min 97. When should peak and trough levels be collected for gentamicin? A. Peak two minutes after and trough 30 minutes after B. Peak 30 minutes after the infusion; trough immediately before the next dose C. Peak immediately before and trough four hours after D. Both levels one hour before the dose 98. During urinary-catheter insertion, when should the balloon be inflated? A. Before the catheter enters the urethra B. After securing the drainage bag to the bed rail C. Immediately at the first drop of urine without advancing D. After urine returns and the catheter has been advanced farther into the bladder 99. Which finding two hours after tonsillectomy is the priority? A. Sleeping quietly B. Frequent swallowing C. Mild throat discomfort D. Requesting ice chips 100. Which newly licensed nurse action after bronchoscopy requires follow-up? A. Monitoring for hemoptysis B. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe every 30 minutes C. Assessing the face and neck for crepitus D. Maintaining Semi-Fowler's position