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ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM
Questions 1–180 | RN Comprehensive Predictor | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
Graded A+
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure and
is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the
medication is having the desired therapeutic effect?
A. Decreased jugular venous distension
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Increased heart rate
D. Decreased urine output
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid volume overload
in heart failure. Decreased jugular venous distension indicates reduced preload
and effective diuresis. Blood pressure should decrease, not increase (B). Heart
rate may decrease as cardiac workload decreases (C). Urine output should
increase, not decrease (D).
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a
thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to
the healthcare provider immediately?
A. Pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Hoarseness of the voice
C. Serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL
D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F)
Correct answer: C
Explanation: A serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL is below the normal range (8.5-
, 2
10.5 mg/dL) and may indicate hypocalcaemia due to accidental removal of the
parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy. This requires immediate reporting.
Pain level 4 (A) is manageable. Hoarseness (B) is common after thyroid surgery
due to laryngeal nerve irritation. A temperature of 37.2°C (D) is within normal
limits.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush"
B. "I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables"
C. "I will report any unusual bleeding to my doctor"
D. "I will take my medication at the same time each day"
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Clients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin
K-rich foods (leafy green vegetables), not avoid them entirely, to keep INR levels
stable. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush (A), reporting unusual bleeding (C), and
taking medication at the same time daily (D) are all correct statements.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and is prescribed oxygen
at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following actions should the
nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?
A. Apply petroleum-based jelly to the nares
B. Use water-soluble lubricant to the nares
C. Tape the cannula securely to the client's face
D. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Water-soluble lubricant prevents drying and cracking of the nares.
Petroleum-based jelly (A) is flammable and should not be used near oxygen.
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Taping securely (C) can cause skin irritation. Increasing flow rate (D) does not
prevent skin breakdown.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client
who has a body mass index of 32. Which of the following needle lengths
should the nurse use?
A. 5/8 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 1.5 inches
D. 2 inches
Correct answer: C
Explanation: For an IM injection in an obese client (BMI >30), a 1.5- to 2-inch
needle is needed to reach the muscle tissue. A 5/8-inch (A) or 1-inch (B) needle
is too short and may deposit the medication in subcutaneous tissue. A 2-inch (D)
needle may be used in some cases, but 1.5 inches is the standard
recommendation.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the
nurse expect?
A. Barrel chest
B. Clubbing of the fingers
C. Pursed-lip breathing
D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Explanation: COPD is characterised by barrel chest due to hyperinflation,
clubbing of the fingers due to chronic hypoxaemia, and pursed-lip breathing as a
compensatory mechanism to maintain airway pressure. All options are expected
findings.
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7. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the use of a metered-dose
inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which of the following instructions should
the nurse include?
A. "Inhale rapidly and deeply after activating the inhaler"
B. "Activate the inhaler before placing it in your mouth"
C. "Wait 1 to 2 minutes between puffs"
D. "Exhale through the mouthpiece after inhalation"
Correct answer: C
Explanation: The client should wait 1 to 2 minutes between puffs to allow for
optimal medication absorption. Inhalation should be slow and deep (A). The
inhaler should be activated after placing it in the mouth (B). Exhalation should
occur before, not after, inhalation (D).
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a newly inserted nasogastric (NG)
tube for enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take to verify correct tube placement?
A. Auscultate for air bubbles over the epigastric area
B. Aspirate gastric contents and check pH
C. Place the end of the tube in water and observe for bubbles
D. Obtain a chest X-ray
Correct answer: D
Explanation: A chest or abdominal X-ray is the gold standard for confirming NG
tube placement. Aspiration and pH testing (B) is a bedside method but is less
definitive. Auscultation (A) is no longer recommended. Observing for bubbles (C)
is for endotracheal tube placement.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of
the following findings indicates a transfusion reaction?
ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM
Questions 1–180 | RN Comprehensive Predictor | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
Graded A+
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure and
is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the
medication is having the desired therapeutic effect?
A. Decreased jugular venous distension
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Increased heart rate
D. Decreased urine output
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid volume overload
in heart failure. Decreased jugular venous distension indicates reduced preload
and effective diuresis. Blood pressure should decrease, not increase (B). Heart
rate may decrease as cardiac workload decreases (C). Urine output should
increase, not decrease (D).
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a
thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to
the healthcare provider immediately?
A. Pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Hoarseness of the voice
C. Serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL
D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F)
Correct answer: C
Explanation: A serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL is below the normal range (8.5-
, 2
10.5 mg/dL) and may indicate hypocalcaemia due to accidental removal of the
parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy. This requires immediate reporting.
Pain level 4 (A) is manageable. Hoarseness (B) is common after thyroid surgery
due to laryngeal nerve irritation. A temperature of 37.2°C (D) is within normal
limits.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush"
B. "I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables"
C. "I will report any unusual bleeding to my doctor"
D. "I will take my medication at the same time each day"
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Clients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin
K-rich foods (leafy green vegetables), not avoid them entirely, to keep INR levels
stable. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush (A), reporting unusual bleeding (C), and
taking medication at the same time daily (D) are all correct statements.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and is prescribed oxygen
at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following actions should the
nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?
A. Apply petroleum-based jelly to the nares
B. Use water-soluble lubricant to the nares
C. Tape the cannula securely to the client's face
D. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Water-soluble lubricant prevents drying and cracking of the nares.
Petroleum-based jelly (A) is flammable and should not be used near oxygen.
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Taping securely (C) can cause skin irritation. Increasing flow rate (D) does not
prevent skin breakdown.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client
who has a body mass index of 32. Which of the following needle lengths
should the nurse use?
A. 5/8 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 1.5 inches
D. 2 inches
Correct answer: C
Explanation: For an IM injection in an obese client (BMI >30), a 1.5- to 2-inch
needle is needed to reach the muscle tissue. A 5/8-inch (A) or 1-inch (B) needle
is too short and may deposit the medication in subcutaneous tissue. A 2-inch (D)
needle may be used in some cases, but 1.5 inches is the standard
recommendation.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the
nurse expect?
A. Barrel chest
B. Clubbing of the fingers
C. Pursed-lip breathing
D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Explanation: COPD is characterised by barrel chest due to hyperinflation,
clubbing of the fingers due to chronic hypoxaemia, and pursed-lip breathing as a
compensatory mechanism to maintain airway pressure. All options are expected
findings.
, 4
7. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the use of a metered-dose
inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which of the following instructions should
the nurse include?
A. "Inhale rapidly and deeply after activating the inhaler"
B. "Activate the inhaler before placing it in your mouth"
C. "Wait 1 to 2 minutes between puffs"
D. "Exhale through the mouthpiece after inhalation"
Correct answer: C
Explanation: The client should wait 1 to 2 minutes between puffs to allow for
optimal medication absorption. Inhalation should be slow and deep (A). The
inhaler should be activated after placing it in the mouth (B). Exhalation should
occur before, not after, inhalation (D).
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a newly inserted nasogastric (NG)
tube for enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take to verify correct tube placement?
A. Auscultate for air bubbles over the epigastric area
B. Aspirate gastric contents and check pH
C. Place the end of the tube in water and observe for bubbles
D. Obtain a chest X-ray
Correct answer: D
Explanation: A chest or abdominal X-ray is the gold standard for confirming NG
tube placement. Aspiration and pH testing (B) is a bedside method but is less
definitive. Auscultation (A) is no longer recommended. Observing for bubbles (C)
is for endotracheal tube placement.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of
the following findings indicates a transfusion reaction?
