NUR 221 Applied Pathophysiology Test Bank
Braun & Anderson 3rd Ed. Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Chapters 1-18 Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
Q1: A patient develops acute kidney injury following administration of an intravenous
contrast dye during a CT scan. Which etiologic classification best describes this
disease origin?
A. Idiopathic
B. Iatrogenic [CORRECT]
C. Congenital
D. Multifactorial
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Iatrogenic conditions are caused by medical treatment or procedures.
Idiopathic (option A) has no known cause, congenital (option C) is present at birth, and
multifactorial (option D) involves multiple contributing factors.
Q2: During a physical examination, the nurse notes that a patient has pitting edema and
crackles in the lung bases. These objective findings are best described as:
A. Symptoms
B. Signs [CORRECT]
C. Risk factors
D. Etiologies
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Signs are objective findings observed by the examiner. Symptoms (option A)
are subjective reports by the patient, risk factors (option C) increase susceptibility, and
etiologies (option D) are causes.
,Q3: A community health nurse implements a screening program for hypertension at a
local health fair. Which level of prevention is being practiced?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention [CORRECT]
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of disease.
Primary prevention (option A) prevents disease before it occurs, tertiary prevention
(option C) manages existing disease complications, and quaternary prevention (option
D) is not a standard level.
Q4: A patient with type 2 diabetes maintains blood glucose control through diet,
exercise, and medication to prevent neuropathy and retinopathy. This management
strategy reflects which level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary [CORRECT]
D. Primordial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention aims to manage existing disease and prevent
complications. Primary (option A) prevents disease onset, secondary (option B) detects
disease early, and primordial (option D) prevents risk factor development.
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
Q5: A patient with severe vomiting and diarrhea presents with muscle weakness,
flattened T waves on ECG, and a serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L. Which electrolyte
imbalance is present?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia [CORRECT]
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: A serum potassium < 3.5 mEq/L with flattened T waves and muscle
weakness indicates hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (option A) shows peaked T waves, and
options C and D involve sodium imbalances.
Q6: A patient with heart failure is receiving intravenous fluids at a rate that exceeds
cardiac output. The nurse observes crackles, dyspnea, and jugular venous distention.
Which fluid imbalance is most likely occurring?
A. Hypovolemia
B. Hypervolemia [CORRECT]
C. Dehydration
D. Third-spacing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypervolemia (fluid volume excess) presents with crackles, JVD, and
dyspnea due to increased circulating volume. Hypovolemia (option A) and dehydration
(option C) present with deficits, and third-spacing (option D) involves fluid trapped in
interstitial spaces.
Q7: A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) retains carbon dioxide
and presents with a pH of 7.32, PaCO₂ of 55 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ of 30 mEq/L. Which
acid-base imbalance is present?
A. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation [CORRECT]
B. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Low pH with elevated PaCO₂ indicates respiratory acidosis; elevated HCO₃⁻
reflects metabolic compensation. Options B, C, and D do not match the ABG pattern.
Q8: A patient with prolonged nasogastric suctioning presents with a pH of 7.50, PaCO₂
of 48 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ of 35 mEq/L. Which acid-base disorder is present?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis [CORRECT]
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Elevated pH and HCO₃⁻ with normal-to-slightly elevated PaCO₂ indicate
metabolic alkalosis, commonly caused by gastric acid loss. Options A, C, and D do not
match the ABG values.
Q9: A patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) develops
confusion and lethargy. Laboratory studies reveal a serum sodium of 128 mEq/L. Which
electrolyte imbalance is present?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia [CORRECT]
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SIADH causes water retention and dilutional hyponatremia (serum sodium <
135 mEq/L). Hypernatremia (option A) is elevated sodium, and options C and D involve
potassium and calcium.
Q10: A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum phosphate of 5.8 mg/dL and a
serum calcium of 7.5 mg/dL. Which electrolyte imbalance pairing is correct?
A. Hypophosphatemia and hypercalcemia
B. Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia [CORRECT]
C. Hypophosphatemia and hypocalcemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia and hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, decreased phosphate excretion leads to
hyperphosphatemia, which binds calcium causing hypocalcemia. Options A, C, and D
incorrectly pair the imbalances.
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
Q11: A patient taking digoxin develops nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances.
Laboratory studies reveal a serum digoxin level of 3.2 ng/mL (therapeutic range 0.5–2.0
ng/mL). Which pharmacologic concept best explains this adverse effect?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Toxicity due to narrow therapeutic index [CORRECT]
C. Idiosyncratic reaction
Braun & Anderson 3rd Ed. Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Chapters 1-18 Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
Q1: A patient develops acute kidney injury following administration of an intravenous
contrast dye during a CT scan. Which etiologic classification best describes this
disease origin?
A. Idiopathic
B. Iatrogenic [CORRECT]
C. Congenital
D. Multifactorial
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Iatrogenic conditions are caused by medical treatment or procedures.
Idiopathic (option A) has no known cause, congenital (option C) is present at birth, and
multifactorial (option D) involves multiple contributing factors.
Q2: During a physical examination, the nurse notes that a patient has pitting edema and
crackles in the lung bases. These objective findings are best described as:
A. Symptoms
B. Signs [CORRECT]
C. Risk factors
D. Etiologies
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Signs are objective findings observed by the examiner. Symptoms (option A)
are subjective reports by the patient, risk factors (option C) increase susceptibility, and
etiologies (option D) are causes.
,Q3: A community health nurse implements a screening program for hypertension at a
local health fair. Which level of prevention is being practiced?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention [CORRECT]
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of disease.
Primary prevention (option A) prevents disease before it occurs, tertiary prevention
(option C) manages existing disease complications, and quaternary prevention (option
D) is not a standard level.
Q4: A patient with type 2 diabetes maintains blood glucose control through diet,
exercise, and medication to prevent neuropathy and retinopathy. This management
strategy reflects which level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary [CORRECT]
D. Primordial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention aims to manage existing disease and prevent
complications. Primary (option A) prevents disease onset, secondary (option B) detects
disease early, and primordial (option D) prevents risk factor development.
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
Q5: A patient with severe vomiting and diarrhea presents with muscle weakness,
flattened T waves on ECG, and a serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L. Which electrolyte
imbalance is present?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia [CORRECT]
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: A serum potassium < 3.5 mEq/L with flattened T waves and muscle
weakness indicates hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (option A) shows peaked T waves, and
options C and D involve sodium imbalances.
Q6: A patient with heart failure is receiving intravenous fluids at a rate that exceeds
cardiac output. The nurse observes crackles, dyspnea, and jugular venous distention.
Which fluid imbalance is most likely occurring?
A. Hypovolemia
B. Hypervolemia [CORRECT]
C. Dehydration
D. Third-spacing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypervolemia (fluid volume excess) presents with crackles, JVD, and
dyspnea due to increased circulating volume. Hypovolemia (option A) and dehydration
(option C) present with deficits, and third-spacing (option D) involves fluid trapped in
interstitial spaces.
Q7: A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) retains carbon dioxide
and presents with a pH of 7.32, PaCO₂ of 55 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ of 30 mEq/L. Which
acid-base imbalance is present?
A. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation [CORRECT]
B. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Low pH with elevated PaCO₂ indicates respiratory acidosis; elevated HCO₃⁻
reflects metabolic compensation. Options B, C, and D do not match the ABG pattern.
Q8: A patient with prolonged nasogastric suctioning presents with a pH of 7.50, PaCO₂
of 48 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ of 35 mEq/L. Which acid-base disorder is present?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis [CORRECT]
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Elevated pH and HCO₃⁻ with normal-to-slightly elevated PaCO₂ indicate
metabolic alkalosis, commonly caused by gastric acid loss. Options A, C, and D do not
match the ABG values.
Q9: A patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) develops
confusion and lethargy. Laboratory studies reveal a serum sodium of 128 mEq/L. Which
electrolyte imbalance is present?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia [CORRECT]
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SIADH causes water retention and dilutional hyponatremia (serum sodium <
135 mEq/L). Hypernatremia (option A) is elevated sodium, and options C and D involve
potassium and calcium.
Q10: A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum phosphate of 5.8 mg/dL and a
serum calcium of 7.5 mg/dL. Which electrolyte imbalance pairing is correct?
A. Hypophosphatemia and hypercalcemia
B. Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia [CORRECT]
C. Hypophosphatemia and hypocalcemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia and hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, decreased phosphate excretion leads to
hyperphosphatemia, which binds calcium causing hypocalcemia. Options A, C, and D
incorrectly pair the imbalances.
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
Q11: A patient taking digoxin develops nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances.
Laboratory studies reveal a serum digoxin level of 3.2 ng/mL (therapeutic range 0.5–2.0
ng/mL). Which pharmacologic concept best explains this adverse effect?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Toxicity due to narrow therapeutic index [CORRECT]
C. Idiosyncratic reaction
