Galen NSG 3600 (NSG3600) Pediatrics – Exam 1 Review | Complete Questions & Answers | Latest 2026–2027| A+.

Complete Galen College of Nursing NSG 3600 (NSG3600) Pediatrics – Exam 1 Review featuring organized questions and answers for focused exam preparation. Designed to help review key pediatric nursing concepts, reinforce important Exam 4 material, and support efficient study. Latest updated for 2026–2027. Which statement best reflects the principle of family-centered pediatric care? A. The family is recognized as the constant in the child’s life. B. The healthcare team assumes primary responsibility for decisions. C. Parents should participate only when requested by the nurse. D. The child’s needs should be considered separately from the family’s needs. Which actions are included in the principles of atraumatic care? A. Prevent separation, promote a sense of control, and minimize bodily injury B. Limit parental involvement and encourage independence C. Complete procedures quickly without preparation D. Avoid discussing procedures with the child The nurse understands that parens patriae refers to which concept? A. A child providing assent for treatment B. The state acting as guardian for individuals unable to care for themselves C. Parents transferring consent authority to a nurse D. A minor automatically becoming emancipated during hospitalization Which description best defines cephalocaudal growth and development? A. Development from the midline toward the extremities B. Fine-motor development occurring before gross-motor development C. Development occurring at identical rates in every child D. Progression of development from the head toward the feet Which description represents proximodistal development? A. Development from the feet upward B. Development occurring at the same rate throughout the body C. Development from the center of the body toward the periphery D. Development of fine-motor abilities before gross-motor abilities Which response indicates an intact rooting reflex in an infant? A. The toes fan outward when the sole is stroked. B. The arms abduct when the infant is startled. C. The infant turns the head and begins sucking when the cheek or lower lip is stroked. D. The fingers curl when the palm is touched. Which finding demonstrates the Moro reflex? A. A sudden jarring movement causes the infant’s arms to abduct and move upward. B. Stroking the sole causes the toes to fan outward. C. Stroking the cheek causes the infant to turn toward the stimulus. D. Touching the palm causes the fingers to curl inward. Which response should the nurse expect when assessing the Babinski reflex? A. The infant turns toward the stroked cheek. B. The infant makes sucking movements. C. The infant abducts both arms. D. The toes fan outward when the sole of the foot is stroked. At approximately what age should an infant’s birth weight double according to the study guide? A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 12 months By approximately 1 year of age, an infant’s birth weight should: A. Double B. Triple C. Increase by 50% D. Remain approximately twice the birth weight At what age is the social smile expected to appear? A. 7 months B. 8–9 months C. 10–12 months D. 6–8 weeks Which fine-motor skill is expected around 9–12 months of age? A. Tying shoelaces B. Drawing a circle C. Developing a pincer grasp D. Using scissors According to Piaget, which cognitive stage applies to infancy? A. Formal operational B. Sensorimotor C. Concrete operational D. Preoperational According to Erikson, the major psychosocial conflict during infancy is: A. Autonomy versus shame and doubt B. Initiative versus guilt C. Industry versus inferiority D. Trust versus mistrust Which type of play is characteristic of infancy? A. Solitary play B. Parallel play C. Associative play D. Cooperative play The study guide indicates that an infant should generally be weaned to a cup during which period? A. 9–12 months B. 2–4 months C. 4–6 months D. 18–24 months According to Erikson, which psychosocial conflict occurs during the toddler years? A. Trust versus mistrust B. Initiative versus guilt C. Autonomy versus shame and doubt D. Industry versus inferiority A toddler playing beside another toddler with similar toys without actually playing with the other child demonstrates: A. Solitary play B. Parallel play C. Associative play D. Cooperative play A hospitalized toddler has a temper tantrum because the child is tired and overwhelmed. Which intervention is consistent with the study guide? A. Punish the child immediately. B. Ignore or remove the child from the situation, touch or distract the child, and do not leave the child alone. C. Explain the behavior using abstract reasoning. D. Remove all familiar objects from the child. Which discipline strategy is specifically recommended for toddlers in the study material? A. Time-out of approximately 1 minute per year of age B. Grounding with loss of peer activities C. Curfews and household chores D. Allowing natural consequences without parental intervention Which psychosocial conflict does Erikson associate with the preschool years? A. Initiative versus guilt B. Industry versus inferiority C. Identity versus role confusion D. Autonomy versus shame and doubt A 4-year-old child is primarily in which Piaget stage? A. Sensorimotor B. Concrete operational C. Preoperational D. Formal operational A preschooler believes that becoming ill occurred because the child behaved badly. This behavior is associated with: A. Object permanence B. Magical thinking C. Formal reasoning D. Cooperative play Which type of play is characteristic of preschool-aged children? A. Associative play B. Solitary play C. Parallel play D. Cooperative play According to Erikson, the primary psychosocial conflict of the school-age child is: A. Initiative versus guilt B. Identity versus role confusion C. Autonomy versus shame and doubt D. Industry versus inferiority Which Piaget stage is associated primarily with ages 7–11 years? A. Concrete operational B. Sensorimotor C. Preoperational D. Formal operational According to Erikson, the adolescent is working through which psychosocial conflict? A. Industry versus inferiority B. Initiative versus guilt C. Autonomy versus shame and doubt D. Identity versus role confusion Which Piaget stage allows the adolescent to use abstract thinking and analyze both sides of an issue? A. Sensorimotor B. Formal operational C. Concrete operational D. Preoperational A hospitalized preschooler fears that a procedure will damage the body. Which intervention is specifically identified as helpful for restoring body integrity? A. Applying a Band-Aid after the procedure B. Restricting therapeutic play C. Avoiding explanations about the procedure D. Separating the child from the parents Which approach is appropriate when discussing sensitive health issues with an adolescent? A. Direct all questions to the parent. B. Avoid discussing private topics. C. Have the parents answer first. D. Provide some assessment and teaching time without the parents present. Which reaction is identified as a common mild response following immunization? A. Severe neurological changes B. Persistent high fever C. Severe respiratory distress D. Local tenderness, erythema, swelling, or a low-grade fever Which condition is specifically identified as NOT being a contraindication to routine immunization? A. A minor illness such as a cold B. A known severe allergy to the vaccine C. A severe febrile illness D. Severe immunocompromise when considering live-virus vaccines Which child should generally not receive a live-virus vaccine according to the study guide? A. A child with a minor cold B. A child who had mild injection-site tenderness C. A severely immunocompromised child D. A child who cried after a previous injection Which isolation precautions are required for a child with varicella? A. Standard precautions only B. Droplet precautions only C. Droplet and contact precautions D. Airborne and contact precautions Which description is characteristic of the varicella rash? A. Sandpaper rash followed by peeling of the fingers B. Fine pink rash beginning on the face without vesicles C. Lesions beginning as macules and progressing to pruritic vesicles and crusts D. Koplik spots followed by a high fever Which manifestation is particularly associated with rubeola (measles)? A. Strawberry tongue B. Enlargement of the parotid glands C. Koplik spots appearing before the rash D. Waddling gait A child diagnosed with rubeola should be placed on which precautions? A. Standard B. Droplet only C. Contact only D. Airborne and contact Which finding is characteristic of rubella in the uploaded study material? A. Sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue B. Vesicular lesions beginning on the trunk C. Fine light-pink maculopapular rash progressing from the face toward the chest and body D. Parotid gland enlargement Which medical treatment is identified for Haemophilus influenzae type B infection? A. Oral acyclovir B. Antibiotics C. Tetanus immune globulin D. Bed rest alone Which group of manifestations is most consistent with influenza? A. Parotid swelling and ear pain B. Rapid high fever, myalgia, headache, and nonproductive cough C. Sandpaper rash and peeling fingers D. Stiff jaw and generalized rigidity Which medication should be avoided in a child with influenza according to the study guide? A. Acetaminophen B. Ibuprofen C. Aspirin D. Penicillin Which manifestation is most characteristic of mumps? A. Koplik spots B. Strawberry tongue C. Enlargement of the parotid glands D. Sandpaper rash Which finding should the nurse associate with pertussis? A. C-shaped spinal curvature B. A characteristic “whooping” cough C. Vesicular skin lesions D. Stiff jaw following a puncture wound Which isolation precaution is identified for tetanus? A. Airborne and contact B. Droplet and contact C. Contact only D. Standard precautions Which treatment combination is associated with tetanus? A. Oral acyclovir and antihistamines B. Antibiotics, surgical debridement, and tetanus immune globulin C. Bed rest and steroids only D. Penicillin for pneumococcal infection Which assessment findings are most consistent with scarlet fever? A. Vesicles and pruritus B. Enlarged parotid glands C. Sandpaper-like rash and strawberry tongue D. Koplik spots and photophobia Which medical therapy is identified for pneumococcal disease? A. Oral acyclovir B. Penicillin or another antibiotic C. Tetanus immune globulin D. Steroids as the primary treatment Infectious mononucleosis is primarily transmitted in the study guide through: A. Airborne particles B. Saliva and blood C. Droplet transmission only D. Contaminated puncture wounds Which components make up the FLACC pain scale? A. Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability B. Face, Language, Alertness, Cry, Comfort C. Feeding, Legs, Activity, Consciousness, Cry D. Facial expression, Locomotion, Anxiety, Comfort, Cooperation The FLACC pain scale is identified in the study guide as appropriate primarily for: A. Adolescents B. School-age children only C. Young and older infants D. Parents reporting their child’s pain Which pain-assessment tool is appropriate for a young child or school-age child according to the notes? A. Wong-Baker Faces scale B. Numeric scale only C. FLACC exclusively D. Parent numerical rating only Which pain scale is specifically identified for adolescents? A. FLACC B. Wong-Baker only C. Numeric scale D. Neonatal reflex scale The study guide defines chronic pain as pain lasting: A. More than 24 hours B. More than 48 hours C. More than 1 month D. More than 3 months Which medication is listed for severe pediatric pain? A. Ibuprofen B. Acetaminophen C. Morphine D. Penicillin What is an important purpose of therapeutic play for a hospitalized child? A. Providing a sense of control and security B. Preventing children from discussing procedures C. Replacing parental involvement D. Preventing age-appropriate activity Which findings are characteristic of clubfoot? A. Rib hump and uneven shoulders B. Plantar flexion, heel inversion, adducted forefoot, and rigidity C. Swollen warm joints and morning stiffness D. Waddling gait with Gowers sign Which therapies are listed as medical management of clubfoot? A. Pavlik harness and hip spica cast B. Exercise only C. Serial casting, Browne splint, and tenotomy D. Spinal fusion and bracing Which statement about epiphyseal injuries in children is correct according to the study guide? A. The cartilage growth plate is the weakest point of a long bone and injury may affect bone growth. B. The injury occurs only in the skull. C. It always represents a complete open fracture. D. It is another term for a muscle strain. Which fracture is described as an incomplete break commonly associated with children? A. Greenstick fracture B. Comminuted fracture C. Impacted fracture D. Transverse fracture Which fracture consists of multiple bone fragments? A. Spiral B. Greenstick C. Impacted D. Comminuted A fracture in which one portion of bone telescopes into another is classified as: A. Oblique B. Impacted C. Longitudinal D. Greenstick Which description defines an open or compound fracture? A. Bone fragments remain aligned. B. The bone buckles without disrupting continuity. C. The fragment is displaced below the surface. D. The broken bone penetrates through the skin. A sprain involves overstretching or tearing of which structure? A. Ligaments B. Muscles C. Tendons D. Bone growth plates A strain is defined as overstretching or tearing of: A. Muscles or tendons B. Ligaments C. Bone fragments D. Growth plates Polydactyly refers to which condition? A. A fused hip joint B. A lateral spinal curvature C. Fused fingers or toes D. Extra fingers or toes Syndactyly refers to: A. Extra fingers or toes B. Fingers or toes fused together C. Plantar-flexed feet D. Unequal skin folds of the hip Osteomyelitis is described in the study guide as: A. A pyogenic infection of bone B. An autoimmune disorder of the joints C. A lateral curvature of the spine D. An incomplete fracture What is a Brodie abscess? A. A fracture through the growth plate B. A bone infection localized by scar tissue C. A congenital hip abnormality D. A ligament injury below the knee Which assessment finding is characteristic of juvenile arthritis? A. Koplik spots B. Waddling gait without joint inflammation C. Rib hump during forward bending D. Swollen, tender joints with limited ROM and morning stiffness Which medications are listed as therapies for juvenile arthritis? A. Penicillin and acyclovir B. Tetanus immune globulin and antibiotics C. Morphine and codeine only D. NSAIDs, prednisone, and disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs Which statement concerning Duchenne muscular dystrophy is identified in the study guide? A. It primarily causes a sandpaper rash. B. It is caused by an acute bone infection. C. It is a sex-linked disorder affecting males. D. It primarily occurs following a ligament injury. Which findings are associated with Duchenne muscular dystrophy? A. Gowers sign and a waddling, wide gait B. Koplik spots and photophobia C. Strawberry tongue and peeling fingers D. Asymmetric hip folds and positive hip maneuvers According to the study guide, scoliosis is defined as a lateral spinal curvature greater than: A. 5 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 20 degrees D. 40 degrees A child being treated with a brace for scoliosis should wear the brace for approximately: A. 8 hours per day B. 12 hours per day C. 18 hours per day D. 23 hours per day Which statement about the Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip is correct according to the uploaded guide? A. It is used only after 2 years of age. B. It is worn only during sleep. C. It is used in infants from birth to approximately 6 months and may be worn 24 hours/day for 6–12 weeks. D. It requires the child to keep the hips completely adducted.