ATI PROFESSIONAL NURSE COMPREHENSIVE EXAM -PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PLUS DETAILED RATIONALES |
COMPLETE STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS | DOWNLOAD
INSTANT PDF 2027-2028
1. A nurse is caring for a client who reports sudden substernal chest pressure radiating to
the left arm. The client is pale and diaphoretic. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
B. Administer an oral antacid
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Offer a high-fat snack
Answer: A
Rationale: A 12-lead ECG should be obtained promptly when acute coronary syndrome is
suspected because early identification of ischemic changes guides urgent treatment.
2. A nurse is assessing a client 12 hours after abdominal surgery. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Incisional pain rated 5/10
B. Temperature of 37.6°C (99.7°F)
C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
D. Mild abdominal distention
Answer: C
Rationale: Urine output below approximately 30 mL/hr in an adult can indicate inadequate
renal perfusion or developing acute kidney injury and requires prompt evaluation.
3. A client receiving an IV opioid becomes difficult to arouse and has a respiratory rate of
7/min. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
,Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory
depression and central nervous system depression.
4. A nurse is teaching a client newly prescribed warfarin. Which statement by the client
indicates correct understanding?
A. “I should double my dose if I miss one.”
B. “I can stop taking it when my bruising improves.”
C. “I should avoid all foods containing vitamin K.”
D. “I will keep my intake of vitamin K-containing foods consistent.”
Answer: D
Rationale: Consistency in dietary vitamin K intake helps maintain a stable anticoagulant
effect. Clients should not abruptly increase or eliminate vitamin K-containing foods.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has dyspnea, crackles, and an oxygen
saturation of 86%. Which action is the priority?
A. Place the client in high-Fowler's position
B. Encourage oral fluid intake
C. Obtain a daily weight
D. Restrict dietary sodium
Answer: A
Rationale: Positioning the client upright improves lung expansion and decreases venous
return, helping reduce pulmonary congestion while additional interventions are initiated.
6. A client with diabetes mellitus is awake, diaphoretic, shaky, and has a blood glucose level
of 52 mg/dL. Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Administer long-acting insulin
B. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
C. Restrict oral fluids
D. Administer potassium chloride
Answer: B
,Rationale: A conscious client with symptomatic hypoglycemia should receive approximately 15
g of a rapidly absorbed carbohydrate, followed by reassessment of blood glucose.
7. A nurse is caring for a client with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which action is most
appropriate?
A. Place the client on airborne precautions
B. Initiate droplet precautions
C. Use only contact precautions
D. Avoid all isolation precautions
Answer: B
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis caused by organisms such as meningococci requires droplet
precautions in addition to standard precautions until the appropriate period of antimicrobial
therapy has been completed.
8. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen. Which finding
indicates the therapy is achieving its intended effect?
A. Respiratory rate increases from 18 to 32/min
B. Oxygen saturation improves to the prescribed target range
C. The client becomes increasingly somnolent
D. Heart rate increases substantially
Answer: B
Rationale: Oxygen therapy should improve oxygenation while maintaining the prescribed
target range. Excessive oxygen administration in susceptible clients requires careful
monitoring rather than indiscriminate escalation.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who has developed a pressure injury over the sacral area.
The wound has partial-thickness skin loss with a red-pink wound bed and no exposed
adipose tissue. How should the nurse classify the injury?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
, Answer: B
Rationale: A stage 2 pressure injury involves partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis.
Adipose, slough, and deeper structures are not exposed.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client. The client's apical pulse is
54/min. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed
B. Give an additional dose if the pulse remains low
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider according to protocol
D. Administer the medication with an antacid
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin can decrease heart rate. An adult apical pulse below the commonly
accepted hold parameter of 60/min requires withholding the dose and further evaluation.
11. A client with a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is receiving furosemide. Which assessment
finding is most concerning?
A. Muscle weakness
B. Increased appetite
C. Warm skin
D. Increased urinary frequency
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness and potentially life-threatening cardiac
dysrhythmias. Furosemide can worsen potassium loss, making monitoring essential.
12. A nurse is caring for a client who develops facial swelling, wheezing, and hypotension
shortly after receiving an antibiotic. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
A. Diphenhydramine orally
B. Epinephrine
C. Acetaminophen
D. Furosemide
Answer: B
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PLUS DETAILED RATIONALES |
COMPLETE STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS | DOWNLOAD
INSTANT PDF 2027-2028
1. A nurse is caring for a client who reports sudden substernal chest pressure radiating to
the left arm. The client is pale and diaphoretic. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
B. Administer an oral antacid
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Offer a high-fat snack
Answer: A
Rationale: A 12-lead ECG should be obtained promptly when acute coronary syndrome is
suspected because early identification of ischemic changes guides urgent treatment.
2. A nurse is assessing a client 12 hours after abdominal surgery. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Incisional pain rated 5/10
B. Temperature of 37.6°C (99.7°F)
C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
D. Mild abdominal distention
Answer: C
Rationale: Urine output below approximately 30 mL/hr in an adult can indicate inadequate
renal perfusion or developing acute kidney injury and requires prompt evaluation.
3. A client receiving an IV opioid becomes difficult to arouse and has a respiratory rate of
7/min. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
,Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory
depression and central nervous system depression.
4. A nurse is teaching a client newly prescribed warfarin. Which statement by the client
indicates correct understanding?
A. “I should double my dose if I miss one.”
B. “I can stop taking it when my bruising improves.”
C. “I should avoid all foods containing vitamin K.”
D. “I will keep my intake of vitamin K-containing foods consistent.”
Answer: D
Rationale: Consistency in dietary vitamin K intake helps maintain a stable anticoagulant
effect. Clients should not abruptly increase or eliminate vitamin K-containing foods.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has dyspnea, crackles, and an oxygen
saturation of 86%. Which action is the priority?
A. Place the client in high-Fowler's position
B. Encourage oral fluid intake
C. Obtain a daily weight
D. Restrict dietary sodium
Answer: A
Rationale: Positioning the client upright improves lung expansion and decreases venous
return, helping reduce pulmonary congestion while additional interventions are initiated.
6. A client with diabetes mellitus is awake, diaphoretic, shaky, and has a blood glucose level
of 52 mg/dL. Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Administer long-acting insulin
B. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
C. Restrict oral fluids
D. Administer potassium chloride
Answer: B
,Rationale: A conscious client with symptomatic hypoglycemia should receive approximately 15
g of a rapidly absorbed carbohydrate, followed by reassessment of blood glucose.
7. A nurse is caring for a client with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which action is most
appropriate?
A. Place the client on airborne precautions
B. Initiate droplet precautions
C. Use only contact precautions
D. Avoid all isolation precautions
Answer: B
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis caused by organisms such as meningococci requires droplet
precautions in addition to standard precautions until the appropriate period of antimicrobial
therapy has been completed.
8. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen. Which finding
indicates the therapy is achieving its intended effect?
A. Respiratory rate increases from 18 to 32/min
B. Oxygen saturation improves to the prescribed target range
C. The client becomes increasingly somnolent
D. Heart rate increases substantially
Answer: B
Rationale: Oxygen therapy should improve oxygenation while maintaining the prescribed
target range. Excessive oxygen administration in susceptible clients requires careful
monitoring rather than indiscriminate escalation.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who has developed a pressure injury over the sacral area.
The wound has partial-thickness skin loss with a red-pink wound bed and no exposed
adipose tissue. How should the nurse classify the injury?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
, Answer: B
Rationale: A stage 2 pressure injury involves partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis.
Adipose, slough, and deeper structures are not exposed.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client. The client's apical pulse is
54/min. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed
B. Give an additional dose if the pulse remains low
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider according to protocol
D. Administer the medication with an antacid
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin can decrease heart rate. An adult apical pulse below the commonly
accepted hold parameter of 60/min requires withholding the dose and further evaluation.
11. A client with a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is receiving furosemide. Which assessment
finding is most concerning?
A. Muscle weakness
B. Increased appetite
C. Warm skin
D. Increased urinary frequency
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness and potentially life-threatening cardiac
dysrhythmias. Furosemide can worsen potassium loss, making monitoring essential.
12. A nurse is caring for a client who develops facial swelling, wheezing, and hypotension
shortly after receiving an antibiotic. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
A. Diphenhydramine orally
B. Epinephrine
C. Acetaminophen
D. Furosemide
Answer: B
