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MSN 620 final exam 2026/2027, nursing theory questions, evidence-based practice nursing exam, advanced practice MSN study guide, graded A+ MSN exam PDF, final exam questions and answers||just out!!!

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MSN 620 final exam 2026/2027, nursing theory questions, evidence-based practice nursing exam, advanced practice MSN study guide, graded A+ MSN exam PDF, final exam questions and answers||just out!!!

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MSN 620 final exam 2026/2027, nursing theory questions,
evidence-based practice nursing exam, advanced practice MSN
study guide, graded A+ MSN exam PDF, final exam questions
and answers||just out!!!
A 65-year-old man presents with postauricular pain, facial
weakness, and excessive tearing that started 24 hours ago. He
denies a history of these symptoms before this episode. Past
medical history is significant for cold sores and asthma. He is
not currently taking any medication and has no allergies.
Physical examination demonstrates severe but incomplete
paralysis of the left side of his face, with normal sensation on
both sides of his face. There are no other symptoms or findings.
What is the most appropriate next step in management for this
patient?
1. Order electroneuronography and electromyography testing
2. Perform a lumbar puncture for viral culture
3. Prescribe prednisone and acyclovir
4. Order magnetic resonance imaging of the brain - ANSWER-3.
Prescribe prednisone and acyclovir


An 88-year-old white male who lives by himself has been
developing progressive dementia and increasing difficulty in
remembering things. He can ambulate with a walker and able to
swallow without any problem. Also, he is unable to express his
needs from time to time resulting in decreased PO intake which

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is associated with progressive weakness. Which of the following
would be the best option given his current condition?
1. Independent senior living
2. Acute rehabilitation facility for intensive physical therapy
3. Skilled nursing facility with 24-hour nursing care
4. Assisted living facility - ANSWER-4. Assisted living facility


A 56-year-old female, who is a smoker, presents to the
outpatient department with the complaint of intermittent,
severe, brief episodes of lancinating pain of the right cheek and
lips for the past four months, which is not subsiding with over
the counter pain medications. Usually, the pain occurs when
brushing the teeth or when touching some specific points in the
lower side of the right cheek. The pain sometimes increases in
chewing. On examination, she does not have any neurological
deficits. What is the most likely cause of pain in this patient?
1. Facial nerve compression
2. Trigeminal nerve compression
3. Facial nerve avulsion
4. Trigeminal nerve avulsion - ANSWER-2. Trigeminal nerve
compression

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A 78-year-old white male was seen in the primary care
provider's office for evaluation of decreased cognitive function.
He has a history of hypertension as well as dyslipidemia. Recent
lab workup revealed a normal CBC except for slight anemia.
Electrolytes were within normal limits. Physical exam was
unremarkable except for slight unsteadiness in his gait. Mini-
Mental Status Exam (MMSE) was 20. It was also noted that he
kept talking about the health of his deceased wife, who passed
away 3 years ago. Which of the following is the next best step in
his evaluation?
1. Obtain a biopsy of the brain looking for deposits of amyloid
protein as well as neurofibrillary tangles
2. Obtain an MRI of the brain looking for evidence of acute
stroke
3. Check TSH, B12, and folate levels
4. No further evaluation is needed as this is a normal aging
process - ANSWER-3. Check TSH, B12, and folate levels


A 65-year-old male presents to the clinic with severe right-sided
facial pain lasting several seconds to a few minutes and then
resolving on their own. This has been occurring twice a day,
often without warning. Sometimes it is provoked by brushing
his teeth. His past medical history is significant for mild chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease and benign prostatic hyperplasia
that was surgically treated five years ago. A physical exam

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reveals decreased breath sounds bilaterally. A detailed
neurologic exam is normal. What is the most appropriate next
step in the management of this patient?
1. Corticosteroid therapy
2. Carbamazepine therapy
3. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain
4. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography of the brain -
ANSWER-2. Carbamazepine therapy


A patient presents with complaints of drooling of saliva from
the angle of the mouth, difficulty chewing, and difficulty
smiling. On examination paralysis of half of his face and
forehead is observed, along with loss of the right nasolabial
fold. Which of the following is a treatment option for this
condition?
1. Antiepileptics
2. Carbamazepine
3. Corticosteroids
4. Botulinum toxin injections - ANSWER-3. Corticosteroids


A 66-year-old man presents with left lower extremity erythema
and swelling for the last three days. He reports that it has
gradually worsened and has spread up the anterior aspect of his

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