BANK NR325 ADULT HEALTH II EXAM 3 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 400
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY
140 QUESTIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
# TOPIC
1 Analyze complex pathophysiological processes in adult patients
2 Prioritize nursing interventions for life-threatening conditions
3 Evaluate the effectiveness of advanced therapeutic modalities
4 Integrate evidence-based practice in the management of adult health alterations
5 NR 325 EXAM 3
6 CHAMBERLAIN
7 NEWEST 2026
8 2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK NR325 ADULT HEALTH II EXAM 3 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 400
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
9 ALREADY GRADED A+
10 MOST RECENT!!
11 Foundations of Adult Health Nursing
12 Applied Adult Health Nursing
13 Advanced Adult Health Nursing
14 Adult Health Nursing Review
ABSTRACT
Page 1
,This study document brings together 140 carefully worded exam questions drawn from NR 325
EXAM 3 (CHAMBERLAIN) NEWEST 2026/ 2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK NR325 ADULT
HEALTH II EXAM 3 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 400 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!), with the strongest emphasis
placed on Analyze complex pathophysiological processes in adult patients, Prioritize nursing
interventions for life-threatening conditions and Evaluate the effectiveness of advanced therapeutic
modalities. Every item follows the wording style and level of reasoning you meet in the real paper,
and each one is paired with a clear rationale so the correct choice is never a guess. Work through
the set at your own pace, mark the questions that slow you down, then come back to them until the
reasoning feels automatic. Learners who revise this way walk into the exam room recognising the
pattern behind the questions instead of meeting them for the first time. Keep going - steady, honest
practice is what turns a difficult paper into a comfortable pass.
Q1 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATHOPHYSIOLOGICAL PROCESSES IN ADULT PATIENTS
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on
volume-controlled ventilation with plateau pressure of 32 cm H2O and PaO2/FiO2
ratio of 120. Despite optimizing sedation, the patient remains hypoxemic. Which
intervention is most likely to improve oxygenation without further increasing lung
injury?
A. Increase FiO2 to 100%
B. Increase PEEP to recruit collapsed alveoli CORRECT
C. Increase tidal volume to 8 mL/kg of ideal body weight
D. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation
RATIONALE: In ARDS, increasing PEEP recruits atelectatic alveoli, improving oxygenation and
reducing atelectrauma, while higher FiO2 may worsen absorption atelectasis and oxygen toxicity.
Increasing tidal volume worsens volutrauma; pressure-controlled ventilation does not inherently
protect the lung if tidal volume remains excessive.
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,Q2 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATHOPHYSIOLOGICAL PROCESSES IN ADULT PATIENTS
A patient with septic shock is on norepinephrine at 20 mcg/min and has a mean
arterial pressure (MAP) of 58 mm Hg despite adequate fluid resuscitation. Which
additional therapy should be initiated based on current Surviving Sepsis
Campaign guidelines?
A. Add vasopressin as a second vasopressor CORRECT
B. Increase norepinephrine to 30 mcg/min
C. Start a corticosteroid (hydrocortisone 200 mg/day)
D. Initiate dobutamine to increase cardiac output
RATIONALE: The Surviving Sepsis Campaign recommends adding vasopressin (0.03 units/min)
when MAP remains <65 despite escalating norepinephrine, to reduce catecholamine burden.
Corticosteroids are reserved for refractory shock unresponsive to vasopressors and fluids;
dobutamine is added only when there is evidence of myocardial dysfunction or low cardiac
output.
Q3 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATHOPHYSIOLOGICAL PROCESSES IN ADULT PATIENTS
A patient with cirrhosis and acute variceal hemorrhage has a hemoglobin of 6.8
g/dL and is hemodynamically unstable. Which intervention is the priority before
endoscopic therapy?
A. Administer octreotide infusion
B. Transfuse packed red blood cells to a target of 9 g/dL CORRECT
C. Insert a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
D. Give prophylactic ceftriaxone
RATIONALE: In acute variceal bleeding, volume resuscitation with blood products is the
immediate priority to restore perfusion, but a restrictive transfusion strategy (target Hb 7-9 g/dL)
is recommended to avoid increasing portal pressure. Octreotide and antibiotics are adjuncts;
balloon tamponade is a rescue measure after failed endoscopic therapy.
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, Q4 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATHOPHYSIOLOGICAL PROCESSES IN ADULT PATIENTS
A patient in the ICU develops hyperkalemia (K+ 6.8 mEq/L) with ECG changes
showing peaked T waves. Which intervention should be administered first to
stabilize the cardiac membrane?
A. IV calcium gluconate CORRECT
B. IV insulin with dextrose
C. IV sodium bicarbonate
D. Inhaled albuterol
RATIONALE: IV calcium gluconate antagonizes the effects of hyperkalemia on the cardiac
membrane, reducing the risk of ventricular fibrillation, and should be given immediately when
ECG changes are present. Insulin/glucose, bicarbonate, and albuterol shift potassium into cells
but have slower onset and do not stabilize the myocardium directly.
Q5 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATHOPHYSIOLOGICAL PROCESSES IN ADULT PATIENTS
A patient with end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis presents with confusion
and asterixis. Labs show BUN 85 mg/dL, creatinine 6.2 mg/dL, and pH 7.25. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. Start continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)
C. Give IV sodium bicarbonate
D. Schedule urgent hemodialysis CORRECT
RATIONALE: The patient has uremic encephalopathy and metabolic acidosis, which are absolute
indications for urgent dialysis. Hemodialysis is the standard for chronic ESRD patients with
severe uremia. CRRT is reserved for hemodynamically unstable patients; sodium polystyrene
sulfonate addresses hyperkalemia, not uremia; bicarbonate alone does not clear uremic toxins.
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