NR 325 EXAM 2 (CHAMBERLAIN) NEWEST 2026/ 2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK NR325 ADULT HEALTH II EXAM 2 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 250
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY
150 QUESTIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
# TOPIC
1 Analyze complex patient data to prioritize nursing interventions
2 Evaluate the safety and efficacy of pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatments
3 Integrate evidence-based guidelines into the management of adult health disorders
4 Apply ethical and legal principles in the care of adults with multi-system health issues
5 NR 325 EXAM 2
6 CHAMBERLAIN
7 NEWEST 2026
8 2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK NR325 ADULT HEALTH II EXAM 2 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 250
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
9 ALREADY GRADED A+
10 MOST RECENT!!
11 Foundations of Adult Health II (Medical-Surgical Nursing)
12 Applied Adult Health II (Medical-Surgical Nursing)
13 Advanced Adult Health II (Medical-Surgical Nursing)
14 Adult Health II (Medical-Surgical Nursing) Review
ABSTRACT
Page 1
,This study document brings together 150 carefully worded exam questions drawn from NR 325
EXAM 2 (CHAMBERLAIN) NEWEST 2026/ 2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK NR325 ADULT
HEALTH II EXAM 2 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 250 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!), with the strongest emphasis
placed on Analyze complex patient data to prioritize nursing interventions, Evaluate the safety and
efficacy of pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatments and Integrate evidence-based
guidelines into the management of adult health disorders. Every item follows the wording style and
level of reasoning you meet in the real paper, and each one is paired with a clear rationale so the
correct choice is never a guess. Work through the set at your own pace, mark the questions that
slow you down, then come back to them until the reasoning feels automatic. Learners who revise
this way walk into the exam room recognising the pattern behind the questions instead of meeting
them for the first time. Keep going - steady, honest practice is what turns a difficult paper into a
comfortable pass.
Q1 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATIENT DATA TO PRIORITIZE NURSING INTERVENTIONS
A patient with acute pancreatitis develops sudden worsening of respiratory status.
Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.48, PaCO2 32 mmHg, PaO2 58 mmHg, HCO3 24
mEq/L. Chest x-ray reveals bilateral infiltrates. Which intervention should the
nurse question?
A. Administer IV fluids at 250 mL/hr
B. Apply positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) at 10 cm H2O
C. Position the patient in prone position
D. Administer furosemide 40 mg IV push CORRECT
RATIONALE: The patient has ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome) with hypoxemia and
respiratory alkalosis. Furosemide is not indicated unless there is evidence of fluid overload;
aggressive diuresis can worsen perfusion. IV fluids, PEEP, and prone positioning are appropriate
ARDS management strategies.
Page 2
,Q2 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATIENT DATA TO PRIORITIZE NURSING INTERVENTIONS
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4 is prescribed sevelamer. The
patient asks why this medication is needed. Which response by the nurse is most
accurate?
A. It prevents hyperkalemia by promoting potassium excretion.
B. It binds dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract to reduce absorption. CORRECT
C. It stimulates erythropoietin production to treat anemia.
D. It corrects metabolic acidosis by buffering hydrogen ions.
RATIONALE: Sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in CKD to control hyperphosphatemia by
binding phosphate in the gut, preventing its absorption. It does not act on potassium,
erythropoietin, or acid-base balance directly.
Q3 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATIENT DATA TO PRIORITIZE NURSING INTERVENTIONS
A patient with heart failure and a serum digoxin level of 2.8 ng/mL presents with
nausea, visual disturbances, and a heart rate of 48 bpm. The nurse reviews the
ECG: PR interval 0.24 seconds, frequent premature ventricular contractions.
Which priority action should the nurse take?
A. Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV push
B. Hold digoxin and notify the provider immediately
C. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
D. Give a dose of digoxin immune Fab CORRECT
RATIONALE: This patient exhibits severe digoxin toxicity (level >2.0 ng/mL, bradycardia, GI
symptoms, visual changes, PVCs). Digoxin immune Fab is the antidote for life-threatening
toxicity. Holding digoxin alone is insufficient; atropine may be used for bradycardia but does not
reverse the toxicity. Cardioversion is contraindicated in digoxin toxicity due to risk of ventricular
fibrillation.
Page 3
, Q4 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATIENT DATA TO PRIORITIZE NURSING INTERVENTIONS
A patient with cirrhosis and ascites has a serum sodium of 128 mEq/L. The
provider orders 0.9% sodium chloride at 75 mL/hr. The nurse reviews the
medication list: spironolactone, furosemide, propranolol, and lactulose. Which
action is most appropriate?
A. Administer the IV fluid as ordered.
B. Question the IV fluid order because hypertonic saline is more appropriate.
C. Hold the furosemide and administer the IV fluid.
D. Refuse to administer the IV fluid and notify the provider of the risk of worsening ascites.
CORRECT
RATIONALE: In cirrhosis, isotonic saline can worsen ascites and edema due to impaired sodium
excretion. The hyponatremia is dilutional; treatment focuses on water restriction and diuretics, not
saline. The nurse should question the order and consult the provider.
Q5 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATIENT DATA TO PRIORITIZE NURSING INTERVENTIONS
A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. The patient reports drinking
alcohol daily. The nurse reviews labs: creatinine 1.3 mg/dL, eGFR 45
mL/min/1.73m2, AST 45 U/L. Which is the most important concern?
A. Risk of lactic acidosis CORRECT
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
RATIONALE: Metformin is contraindicated in patients with eGFR <30 mL/min/1.73m2 and should
be used with caution when eGFR is 30-45. Alcohol use increases the risk of lactic acidosis,
especially with renal impairment. The patient's eGFR of 45 and alcohol use pose significant risk
for lactic acidosis.
Page 4
BANK NR325 ADULT HEALTH II EXAM 2 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 250
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY
150 QUESTIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
# TOPIC
1 Analyze complex patient data to prioritize nursing interventions
2 Evaluate the safety and efficacy of pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatments
3 Integrate evidence-based guidelines into the management of adult health disorders
4 Apply ethical and legal principles in the care of adults with multi-system health issues
5 NR 325 EXAM 2
6 CHAMBERLAIN
7 NEWEST 2026
8 2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK NR325 ADULT HEALTH II EXAM 2 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 250
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
9 ALREADY GRADED A+
10 MOST RECENT!!
11 Foundations of Adult Health II (Medical-Surgical Nursing)
12 Applied Adult Health II (Medical-Surgical Nursing)
13 Advanced Adult Health II (Medical-Surgical Nursing)
14 Adult Health II (Medical-Surgical Nursing) Review
ABSTRACT
Page 1
,This study document brings together 150 carefully worded exam questions drawn from NR 325
EXAM 2 (CHAMBERLAIN) NEWEST 2026/ 2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK NR325 ADULT
HEALTH II EXAM 2 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 250 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!), with the strongest emphasis
placed on Analyze complex patient data to prioritize nursing interventions, Evaluate the safety and
efficacy of pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatments and Integrate evidence-based
guidelines into the management of adult health disorders. Every item follows the wording style and
level of reasoning you meet in the real paper, and each one is paired with a clear rationale so the
correct choice is never a guess. Work through the set at your own pace, mark the questions that
slow you down, then come back to them until the reasoning feels automatic. Learners who revise
this way walk into the exam room recognising the pattern behind the questions instead of meeting
them for the first time. Keep going - steady, honest practice is what turns a difficult paper into a
comfortable pass.
Q1 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATIENT DATA TO PRIORITIZE NURSING INTERVENTIONS
A patient with acute pancreatitis develops sudden worsening of respiratory status.
Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.48, PaCO2 32 mmHg, PaO2 58 mmHg, HCO3 24
mEq/L. Chest x-ray reveals bilateral infiltrates. Which intervention should the
nurse question?
A. Administer IV fluids at 250 mL/hr
B. Apply positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) at 10 cm H2O
C. Position the patient in prone position
D. Administer furosemide 40 mg IV push CORRECT
RATIONALE: The patient has ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome) with hypoxemia and
respiratory alkalosis. Furosemide is not indicated unless there is evidence of fluid overload;
aggressive diuresis can worsen perfusion. IV fluids, PEEP, and prone positioning are appropriate
ARDS management strategies.
Page 2
,Q2 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATIENT DATA TO PRIORITIZE NURSING INTERVENTIONS
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4 is prescribed sevelamer. The
patient asks why this medication is needed. Which response by the nurse is most
accurate?
A. It prevents hyperkalemia by promoting potassium excretion.
B. It binds dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract to reduce absorption. CORRECT
C. It stimulates erythropoietin production to treat anemia.
D. It corrects metabolic acidosis by buffering hydrogen ions.
RATIONALE: Sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in CKD to control hyperphosphatemia by
binding phosphate in the gut, preventing its absorption. It does not act on potassium,
erythropoietin, or acid-base balance directly.
Q3 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATIENT DATA TO PRIORITIZE NURSING INTERVENTIONS
A patient with heart failure and a serum digoxin level of 2.8 ng/mL presents with
nausea, visual disturbances, and a heart rate of 48 bpm. The nurse reviews the
ECG: PR interval 0.24 seconds, frequent premature ventricular contractions.
Which priority action should the nurse take?
A. Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV push
B. Hold digoxin and notify the provider immediately
C. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
D. Give a dose of digoxin immune Fab CORRECT
RATIONALE: This patient exhibits severe digoxin toxicity (level >2.0 ng/mL, bradycardia, GI
symptoms, visual changes, PVCs). Digoxin immune Fab is the antidote for life-threatening
toxicity. Holding digoxin alone is insufficient; atropine may be used for bradycardia but does not
reverse the toxicity. Cardioversion is contraindicated in digoxin toxicity due to risk of ventricular
fibrillation.
Page 3
, Q4 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATIENT DATA TO PRIORITIZE NURSING INTERVENTIONS
A patient with cirrhosis and ascites has a serum sodium of 128 mEq/L. The
provider orders 0.9% sodium chloride at 75 mL/hr. The nurse reviews the
medication list: spironolactone, furosemide, propranolol, and lactulose. Which
action is most appropriate?
A. Administer the IV fluid as ordered.
B. Question the IV fluid order because hypertonic saline is more appropriate.
C. Hold the furosemide and administer the IV fluid.
D. Refuse to administer the IV fluid and notify the provider of the risk of worsening ascites.
CORRECT
RATIONALE: In cirrhosis, isotonic saline can worsen ascites and edema due to impaired sodium
excretion. The hyponatremia is dilutional; treatment focuses on water restriction and diuretics, not
saline. The nurse should question the order and consult the provider.
Q5 ANALYZE COMPLEX PATIENT DATA TO PRIORITIZE NURSING INTERVENTIONS
A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. The patient reports drinking
alcohol daily. The nurse reviews labs: creatinine 1.3 mg/dL, eGFR 45
mL/min/1.73m2, AST 45 U/L. Which is the most important concern?
A. Risk of lactic acidosis CORRECT
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
RATIONALE: Metformin is contraindicated in patients with eGFR <30 mL/min/1.73m2 and should
be used with caution when eGFR is 30-45. Alcohol use increases the risk of lactic acidosis,
especially with renal impairment. The patient's eGFR of 45 and alcohol use pose significant risk
for lactic acidosis.
Page 4
