NSG 533 EXAM 2 - WILKES
ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
(2026) ACTUAL QUESTIONS &
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
170 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NSG 533 EXAM 2 - WILKES ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY (2026) ACTUAL QUESTIONS & STUDY GUIDE |
GUARANTEE PASS. It contains 170 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and
testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the
underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 170 Questions
Foundations - Application - NSG 533 2 Wilkes Advanced Pharmacology 2026 Actual & Study Guide
Guarantee PASS Advanced Pharmacology Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Requires 1-43 Agent, Atrial Fibrillation, Heart, Chronic, Kidney
Prescribed 44-86 Appropriate, Monitoring, Chronic, Requires, Disorder
Appropriate 87-129 Requires, Prescribed, Describes, Heart Failure, Monitoring
Agent 130-170 Therapy, Phenytoin, Develops, Chronic, Requires
TOTAL 170 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Requires
Q1.
A patient on warfarin for atrial fibrillation is prescribed a new antibiotic for a urinary tract
infection. Which of the following antibiotics is MOST likely to cause a clinically significant
elevation in INR?
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Azithromycin
C. Doxycycline D. Nitrofurantoin
Correct: A - Ciprofloxacin
Rationale:Ciprofloxacin inhibits CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, reducing warfarin metabolism and
increasing INR. Azithromycin and doxycycline have minimal interaction, while nitrofurantoin
does not significantly affect warfarin metabolism.
Q2.
A prescriber considers using metformin in a patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3b
(eGFR 40 mL/min/1.73 m²). According to current guidelines, what is the recommended
action?
A. Continue metformin at the same dose B. Reduce the dose of metformin and
monitor renal function every 3 months
C. Discontinue metformin due to D. Switch to an insulin secretagogue
contraindication
Correct: B - Reduce the dose of metformin and monitor renal function every 3 months
Rationale:Current guidelines allow metformin use in CKD stage 3b with dose reduction
(maximum 1000 mg/day) and close monitoring. It is contraindicated only when eGFR falls
below 30 mL/min/1.73 m².
Q3.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of sacubitril/valsartan in
heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A. Inhibition of angiotensin-converting B. Blockade of angiotensin II receptor and
enzyme and neprilysin inhibition of neprilysin
C. Selective beta-1 adrenergic blockade D. Aldosterone receptor antagonism
Correct: B - Blockade of angiotensin II receptor and inhibition of neprilysin
Page 3
, Section A - Requires
Rationale: Sacubitril is a neprilysin inhibitor, and valsartan is an ARB. The combination
increases natriuretic peptides while blocking AT1 receptors, reducing remodeling. ACE
inhibitors are not combined due to angioedema risk.
Q4.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is on metformin and insulin glargine. Which statement is
TRUE regarding the addition of a GLP-1 receptor agonist?
A. It increases the risk of hypoglycemia B. It is contraindicated in patients with
when combined with metformin. established cardiovascular disease.
C. It may cause weight loss and reduce D. It requires dose adjustment of insulin
cardiovascular events. glargine due to increased insulin sensitivity.
Correct: C - It may cause weight loss and reduce cardiovascular events.
Rationale:GLP-1 receptor agonists promote weight loss and have demonstrated
cardiovascular benefits. They have low intrinsic hypoglycemia risk when used alone, but
when combined with insulin, insulin dose may need reduction; they are not contraindicated in
CVD.
Q5.
A patient is prescribed rivaroxaban for non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Which of the
following requires caution or dose adjustment?
A. Concomitant use of aspirin B. CrCl 25 mL/min
C. Body weight 120 kg D. History of gastrointestinal bleeding
Correct: B - CrCl 25 mL/min
Rationale:Rivaroxaban is contraindicated in CrCl < 15 mL/min and requires dose reduction to
15 mg daily if CrCl is 15-50 mL/min. Aspirin increases bleeding risk but is not a
contraindication; weight and GI bleeding are not specific to rivaroxaban.
Q6.
Which of the following is a critical monitoring parameter for patients on long-term
amiodarone therapy?
A. Serum potassium levels B. Pulmonary function tests
C. Liver function tests D. Thyroid function tests
Correct: D - Thyroid function tests
Page 4
ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
(2026) ACTUAL QUESTIONS &
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
170 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NSG 533 EXAM 2 - WILKES ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY (2026) ACTUAL QUESTIONS & STUDY GUIDE |
GUARANTEE PASS. It contains 170 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and
testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the
underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 170 Questions
Foundations - Application - NSG 533 2 Wilkes Advanced Pharmacology 2026 Actual & Study Guide
Guarantee PASS Advanced Pharmacology Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Requires 1-43 Agent, Atrial Fibrillation, Heart, Chronic, Kidney
Prescribed 44-86 Appropriate, Monitoring, Chronic, Requires, Disorder
Appropriate 87-129 Requires, Prescribed, Describes, Heart Failure, Monitoring
Agent 130-170 Therapy, Phenytoin, Develops, Chronic, Requires
TOTAL 170 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Requires
Q1.
A patient on warfarin for atrial fibrillation is prescribed a new antibiotic for a urinary tract
infection. Which of the following antibiotics is MOST likely to cause a clinically significant
elevation in INR?
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Azithromycin
C. Doxycycline D. Nitrofurantoin
Correct: A - Ciprofloxacin
Rationale:Ciprofloxacin inhibits CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, reducing warfarin metabolism and
increasing INR. Azithromycin and doxycycline have minimal interaction, while nitrofurantoin
does not significantly affect warfarin metabolism.
Q2.
A prescriber considers using metformin in a patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3b
(eGFR 40 mL/min/1.73 m²). According to current guidelines, what is the recommended
action?
A. Continue metformin at the same dose B. Reduce the dose of metformin and
monitor renal function every 3 months
C. Discontinue metformin due to D. Switch to an insulin secretagogue
contraindication
Correct: B - Reduce the dose of metformin and monitor renal function every 3 months
Rationale:Current guidelines allow metformin use in CKD stage 3b with dose reduction
(maximum 1000 mg/day) and close monitoring. It is contraindicated only when eGFR falls
below 30 mL/min/1.73 m².
Q3.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of sacubitril/valsartan in
heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A. Inhibition of angiotensin-converting B. Blockade of angiotensin II receptor and
enzyme and neprilysin inhibition of neprilysin
C. Selective beta-1 adrenergic blockade D. Aldosterone receptor antagonism
Correct: B - Blockade of angiotensin II receptor and inhibition of neprilysin
Page 3
, Section A - Requires
Rationale: Sacubitril is a neprilysin inhibitor, and valsartan is an ARB. The combination
increases natriuretic peptides while blocking AT1 receptors, reducing remodeling. ACE
inhibitors are not combined due to angioedema risk.
Q4.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is on metformin and insulin glargine. Which statement is
TRUE regarding the addition of a GLP-1 receptor agonist?
A. It increases the risk of hypoglycemia B. It is contraindicated in patients with
when combined with metformin. established cardiovascular disease.
C. It may cause weight loss and reduce D. It requires dose adjustment of insulin
cardiovascular events. glargine due to increased insulin sensitivity.
Correct: C - It may cause weight loss and reduce cardiovascular events.
Rationale:GLP-1 receptor agonists promote weight loss and have demonstrated
cardiovascular benefits. They have low intrinsic hypoglycemia risk when used alone, but
when combined with insulin, insulin dose may need reduction; they are not contraindicated in
CVD.
Q5.
A patient is prescribed rivaroxaban for non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Which of the
following requires caution or dose adjustment?
A. Concomitant use of aspirin B. CrCl 25 mL/min
C. Body weight 120 kg D. History of gastrointestinal bleeding
Correct: B - CrCl 25 mL/min
Rationale:Rivaroxaban is contraindicated in CrCl < 15 mL/min and requires dose reduction to
15 mg daily if CrCl is 15-50 mL/min. Aspirin increases bleeding risk but is not a
contraindication; weight and GI bleeding are not specific to rivaroxaban.
Q6.
Which of the following is a critical monitoring parameter for patients on long-term
amiodarone therapy?
A. Serum potassium levels B. Pulmonary function tests
C. Liver function tests D. Thyroid function tests
Correct: D - Thyroid function tests
Page 4
