NR602 PEDIATRIC AND WOMEN’S
HEALTH ADVANCED PRACTICE
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM
1. A 4-year-old child presents with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever.
The symptoms are worse at night. What is the most likely diagnosis and causative agent?
A. Epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b
B. Pertussis caused by Bordetella pertussis
C. Bronchiolitis caused by Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
D. Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis) caused by Parainfluenza virus
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Croup is characterized by a barking cough and stridor, typically
caused by the parainfluenza virus. Epiglottitis is more severe with drooling, and RSV
typically causes wheezing in younger infants.
,2. In a 15-year-old male, you observe the beginning of pubic hair growth that is darker and
coarser, and the penis has begun to increase in length. Which Tanner Stage is this patient
currently in?
A. Tanner Stage II
B. Tanner Stage IV
C. Tanner Stage III
D. Tanner Stage V
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Tanner Stage III in males is characterized by further growth of
the penis in length, darker/coarser pubic hair, and further enlargement of the testes.
3. A 26-week gestation pregnant woman presents for a routine visit. Her glucose challenge
test (GCT) result is 155 mg/dL. What is the next appropriate step?
A. Diagnose Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) immediately
B. Repeat the 1-hour GCT in two weeks
C. Order a 3-hour Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT)
D. Start the patient on Glyburide
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: A 1-hour GCT result above 130-140 mg/dL (depending on the
clinic threshold) requires a 3-hour GTT for a definitive diagnosis of GDM.
, 4. During a newborn assessment, you note a ‘clunk’ when performing the Ortolani maneuver.
This finding is indicative of:
A. Metatarsus adductus
B. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
C. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
D. Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The Ortolani maneuver identifies a dislocated hip that can be
reduced into the acetabulum, indicating DDH. A positive result is the sensation or sound of
a ‘clunk’.
5. A 16nd-week pregnant woman presents with a blood pressure of 145/95 mmHg on two
separate occasions. She has no proteinuria or end-organ damage. How would you classify this
condition?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Gestational Hypertension
C. Eclampsia
D. Chronic Hypertension
Answer: D
HEALTH ADVANCED PRACTICE
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM
1. A 4-year-old child presents with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever.
The symptoms are worse at night. What is the most likely diagnosis and causative agent?
A. Epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b
B. Pertussis caused by Bordetella pertussis
C. Bronchiolitis caused by Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
D. Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis) caused by Parainfluenza virus
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Croup is characterized by a barking cough and stridor, typically
caused by the parainfluenza virus. Epiglottitis is more severe with drooling, and RSV
typically causes wheezing in younger infants.
,2. In a 15-year-old male, you observe the beginning of pubic hair growth that is darker and
coarser, and the penis has begun to increase in length. Which Tanner Stage is this patient
currently in?
A. Tanner Stage II
B. Tanner Stage IV
C. Tanner Stage III
D. Tanner Stage V
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Tanner Stage III in males is characterized by further growth of
the penis in length, darker/coarser pubic hair, and further enlargement of the testes.
3. A 26-week gestation pregnant woman presents for a routine visit. Her glucose challenge
test (GCT) result is 155 mg/dL. What is the next appropriate step?
A. Diagnose Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) immediately
B. Repeat the 1-hour GCT in two weeks
C. Order a 3-hour Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT)
D. Start the patient on Glyburide
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: A 1-hour GCT result above 130-140 mg/dL (depending on the
clinic threshold) requires a 3-hour GTT for a definitive diagnosis of GDM.
, 4. During a newborn assessment, you note a ‘clunk’ when performing the Ortolani maneuver.
This finding is indicative of:
A. Metatarsus adductus
B. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
C. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
D. Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The Ortolani maneuver identifies a dislocated hip that can be
reduced into the acetabulum, indicating DDH. A positive result is the sensation or sound of
a ‘clunk’.
5. A 16nd-week pregnant woman presents with a blood pressure of 145/95 mmHg on two
separate occasions. She has no proteinuria or end-organ damage. How would you classify this
condition?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Gestational Hypertension
C. Eclampsia
D. Chronic Hypertension
Answer: D
