IBHRE CERTIFIED CARDIAC DEVICE SPECIALIST (CCDS) EXAM
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES Q&A INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
140 QUESTIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
# TOPIC
1 Demonstrate mastery of core concepts
2 IBHRE Certified Cardiac Device Specialist
3 CCDS
4 Exam Practice Questions And Correct Answers
5 Verified Answers
6 Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf
7 Foundations of IBHRE Certified Cardiac Device Specialist (CCDS) Exam Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf
8 Applied IBHRE Certified Cardiac Device Specialist (CCDS) Exam Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf
9 Advanced IBHRE Certified Cardiac Device Specialist (CCDS) Exam Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf
10 IBHRE Certified Cardiac Device Specialist (CCDS) Exam Practice Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf Review
Page 1
,Q1 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
During a routine interrogation of a dual-chamber ICD, the atrial channel shows
intermittent far-field R-wave oversensing only during exercise. Which programmed
parameter is most likely to eliminate this without compromising atrial sensing?
A. Increase atrial sensitivity (lower mV threshold)
B. Decrease atrial sensitivity (higher mV threshold) CORRECT
C. Increase atrial blanking after ventricular pacing
D. Enable atrial tachycardia detection with longer duration
RATIONALE: Far-field R-wave oversensing is a ventricular signal seen on the atrial channel,
often during exercise due to increased R-wave amplitude. Decreasing atrial sensitivity (raising
the sensing threshold) reduces the chance of sensing smaller far-field signals. Increasing
blanking could also help but may miss true atrial events. Increasing sensitivity would worsen the
problem, and tachycardia detection does not address the oversensing.
Q2 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
A patient with a CRT-D has a pacing threshold of 2.5 V at 1.0 ms in the left
ventricular lead. The device is programmed to a bipolar configuration with a
pacing impedance of 450 ohms. What is the approximate delivered current at this
output?
A. 5.6 mA CORRECT
B. 11.1 mA
C. 2.5 mA
D. 22.2 mA
RATIONALE: Current (I) = Voltage (V) / Impedance (Z). At threshold, V = 2.5 V and Z = 450 , so I
= 2.5/450 5.6 mA. The other options are either miscalculations or use incorrect formulas.
Page 2
,Q3 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
A patient with a subcutaneous ICD (S-ICD) presents after a shock. Interrogation
reveals the episode was classified as polymorphic VT. Which sensing vector is
most susceptible to T-wave oversensing, which could lead to inappropriate
shocks?
A. Primary vector (proximal coil to can)
B. Secondary vector (distal coil to proximal coil)
C. Alternate vector (distal coil to can) CORRECT
D. All vectors have equal susceptibility
RATIONALE: The alternate vector (distal coil to can) has a larger sensing vector that often
includes more far-field signals, making T-wave oversensing more likely. The primary and
secondary vectors are designed to reduce this by being more focused. Thus, alternate vector is
most susceptible.
Q4 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
When programming a CRT device, which combination of atrioventricular (AV) and
interventricular (VV) delays is most likely to maximize hemodynamic benefit in a
patient with left bundle branch block and normal intrinsic AV conduction?
A. Short AV delay with LV-first pacing CORRECT
B. Long AV delay with RV-first pacing
C. Short AV delay with simultaneous biventricular pacing
D. Long AV delay with LV-only pacing
RATIONALE: In LBBB, a short AV delay ensures biventricular capture before intrinsic conduction,
and LV-first pacing (negative VV delay) can pre-excite the lateral wall, improving synchrony. Long
AV delay may allow fusion with intrinsic conduction, reducing benefit. Simultaneous pacing is
less optimal than LV-first in many patients.
Page 3
, Q5 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
A patient with a dual-chamber pacemaker is found to have pacemaker-mediated
tachycardia (PMT). Which programmed feature is specifically designed to prevent
PMT by extending the post-ventricular atrial blanking period after a premature
ventricular contraction?
A. Rate hysteresis
B. PMT intervention (e.g., PVARP extension) CORRECT
C. Atrial tachycardia response
D. Mode switching
RATIONALE: PMT occurs when a retrograde P wave is sensed in the atrial channel and triggers
ventricular pacing. Extending the post-ventricular atrial blanking period (PVARP) after a PVC
prevents sensing retrograde P waves, thus terminating PMT. Rate hysteresis is for rate
adaptation, mode switching is for atrial arrhythmias, and atrial tachycardia response is not
specific.
Q6 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
When evaluating a patient with a cardiac resynchronization therapy device, which
echocardiographic parameter is most predictive of a positive response to CRT?
A. Left ventricular end-diastolic diameter (LVEDD)
B. Interventricular mechanical delay (IVMD) > 40 ms CORRECT
C. Left atrial volume index
D. Ejection fraction < 25%
RATIONALE: IVMD > 40 ms indicates significant interventricular dyssynchrony, which is a strong
predictor of CRT response. LVEDD and LA volume are remodeling markers but not direct
dyssynchrony measures. EF < 25% is an indication but not a predictor of response.
Page 4
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES Q&A INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
140 QUESTIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
# TOPIC
1 Demonstrate mastery of core concepts
2 IBHRE Certified Cardiac Device Specialist
3 CCDS
4 Exam Practice Questions And Correct Answers
5 Verified Answers
6 Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf
7 Foundations of IBHRE Certified Cardiac Device Specialist (CCDS) Exam Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf
8 Applied IBHRE Certified Cardiac Device Specialist (CCDS) Exam Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf
9 Advanced IBHRE Certified Cardiac Device Specialist (CCDS) Exam Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf
10 IBHRE Certified Cardiac Device Specialist (CCDS) Exam Practice Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf Review
Page 1
,Q1 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
During a routine interrogation of a dual-chamber ICD, the atrial channel shows
intermittent far-field R-wave oversensing only during exercise. Which programmed
parameter is most likely to eliminate this without compromising atrial sensing?
A. Increase atrial sensitivity (lower mV threshold)
B. Decrease atrial sensitivity (higher mV threshold) CORRECT
C. Increase atrial blanking after ventricular pacing
D. Enable atrial tachycardia detection with longer duration
RATIONALE: Far-field R-wave oversensing is a ventricular signal seen on the atrial channel,
often during exercise due to increased R-wave amplitude. Decreasing atrial sensitivity (raising
the sensing threshold) reduces the chance of sensing smaller far-field signals. Increasing
blanking could also help but may miss true atrial events. Increasing sensitivity would worsen the
problem, and tachycardia detection does not address the oversensing.
Q2 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
A patient with a CRT-D has a pacing threshold of 2.5 V at 1.0 ms in the left
ventricular lead. The device is programmed to a bipolar configuration with a
pacing impedance of 450 ohms. What is the approximate delivered current at this
output?
A. 5.6 mA CORRECT
B. 11.1 mA
C. 2.5 mA
D. 22.2 mA
RATIONALE: Current (I) = Voltage (V) / Impedance (Z). At threshold, V = 2.5 V and Z = 450 , so I
= 2.5/450 5.6 mA. The other options are either miscalculations or use incorrect formulas.
Page 2
,Q3 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
A patient with a subcutaneous ICD (S-ICD) presents after a shock. Interrogation
reveals the episode was classified as polymorphic VT. Which sensing vector is
most susceptible to T-wave oversensing, which could lead to inappropriate
shocks?
A. Primary vector (proximal coil to can)
B. Secondary vector (distal coil to proximal coil)
C. Alternate vector (distal coil to can) CORRECT
D. All vectors have equal susceptibility
RATIONALE: The alternate vector (distal coil to can) has a larger sensing vector that often
includes more far-field signals, making T-wave oversensing more likely. The primary and
secondary vectors are designed to reduce this by being more focused. Thus, alternate vector is
most susceptible.
Q4 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
When programming a CRT device, which combination of atrioventricular (AV) and
interventricular (VV) delays is most likely to maximize hemodynamic benefit in a
patient with left bundle branch block and normal intrinsic AV conduction?
A. Short AV delay with LV-first pacing CORRECT
B. Long AV delay with RV-first pacing
C. Short AV delay with simultaneous biventricular pacing
D. Long AV delay with LV-only pacing
RATIONALE: In LBBB, a short AV delay ensures biventricular capture before intrinsic conduction,
and LV-first pacing (negative VV delay) can pre-excite the lateral wall, improving synchrony. Long
AV delay may allow fusion with intrinsic conduction, reducing benefit. Simultaneous pacing is
less optimal than LV-first in many patients.
Page 3
, Q5 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
A patient with a dual-chamber pacemaker is found to have pacemaker-mediated
tachycardia (PMT). Which programmed feature is specifically designed to prevent
PMT by extending the post-ventricular atrial blanking period after a premature
ventricular contraction?
A. Rate hysteresis
B. PMT intervention (e.g., PVARP extension) CORRECT
C. Atrial tachycardia response
D. Mode switching
RATIONALE: PMT occurs when a retrograde P wave is sensed in the atrial channel and triggers
ventricular pacing. Extending the post-ventricular atrial blanking period (PVARP) after a PVC
prevents sensing retrograde P waves, thus terminating PMT. Rate hysteresis is for rate
adaptation, mode switching is for atrial arrhythmias, and atrial tachycardia response is not
specific.
Q6 DEMONSTRATE MASTERY OF CORE CONCEPTS
When evaluating a patient with a cardiac resynchronization therapy device, which
echocardiographic parameter is most predictive of a positive response to CRT?
A. Left ventricular end-diastolic diameter (LVEDD)
B. Interventricular mechanical delay (IVMD) > 40 ms CORRECT
C. Left atrial volume index
D. Ejection fraction < 25%
RATIONALE: IVMD > 40 ms indicates significant interventricular dyssynchrony, which is a strong
predictor of CRT response. LVEDD and LA volume are remodeling markers but not direct
dyssynchrony measures. EF < 25% is an indication but not a predictor of response.
Page 4
