STUDY BREAST AND STI QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE
ANSWERS
A 19-year-old man comes to the outpatient clinic for treatment of uncomplicated
gonorrhea. Which statement made by the patient requires immediate
intervention by the nurse? correct answer C
Patients should abstain from sexual intercourse and alcohol during treatment.
Patients should avoid sexual intercourse for 7 days after completing treatment
with antibiotics. Sexual intercourse allows the infection to spread and can delay
healing. Alcohol is irritating to the healing urethral walls. Patients with
uncomplicated gonorrhea who are treated do not need to return to the clinic to
confirm the disease has been cured. All sexual contact of patients with gonorrhea
must be evaluated and treated to prevent reinfection.
A 21-year-old woman is scheduled for her first Pap test. The nurse should provide
which instructions? correct answer C. The patient should be instructed to not
douche for at least 24 hours before a Pap test. The patient should empty the
bladder before a Pap test. There are no activity restrictions after a Pap test. The
patient should rest for 2 to 3 days after a conization. A culture or a smear tests for
sexually transmitted infections. A Pap test is a cytologic study used to detect
abnormal cells.
A 22-year-old male is being treated at a college health care clinic for gonorrhea.
Which teaching point should the nurse include in patient teaching? correct
answer b.
Treatment for gonorrhea necessitates abstinence from sexual activity (to prevent
infection of partners) and alcohol (to avoid urethral irritation). The disease is not
self-limiting, nor does successful treatment confer future resistance.
,A 24-year-old patient is at the clinic with symptoms of purulent vaginal discharge,
dysuria, and dyspareunia. She is sexually active and has multiple partners. What
should the nurse explain to the patient as the rationale for screening her for
Chlamydia? correct answer c.
Because of the potential for infertility, routine screening for Chlamydia is
recommended for women sexually active under age 25 and annually for those
over 25 with one or more risk factors for the infection. Chlamydia is not a primary
risk for sepsis and is not noted to be strongly correlated with HIV infection. The
disease is treatable at all stages of infection.
A 30-year-old female patient has sought care because of the recent appearance of
itchy lesions on her vulva, some of which have recently burst. What problem
should the nurse first suspect related to the patient's description of her problem?
correct answer D
A primary episode of genital herpes is often marked by multiple small, vesicular
lesions on the genitals. This symptomatology is not commonly associated with
HIV, gonorrhea, or Chlamydia.
A 50-year-old patient is preparing to begin breast cancer treatment with
tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What point should the nurse emphasize when teaching the
patient about her new drug regimen? correct answer B. Tamoxifen has the
potential to cause cataracts and retinopathy. The drug is likely to exacerbate
rather than alleviate perimenopausal symptoms. Breast tenderness is not
associated with tamoxifen, and it is not necessary for the patient to abstain from
alcohol.
A 52-year-old man with a primary infection of genital herpes was prescribed
acyclovir (Zovirax) orally for 10 days. The patient returns to the clinic for a follow-
up visit. Which finding indicates that treatment is effective? correct answer B
Primary genital herpes is a viral disorder caused by the herpes simplex virus.
Genital herpes results in painful, vesicular lesions. The lesions rupture, form
, crusts, and heal in 17 to 21 days. Genital warts are caused by the human
papillomavirus. Genital herpes is caused by a viral infection (not bacterial).
Syphilis is caused by a bacterial organism and results in a chancre, which is a
painless, indurated lesion.
A 62-year-old male patient with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc).
The nurse should assess for which possible adverse effect? correct answer C.
Some antihypertensive medications (e.g., amlodipine) may cause erectile
dysfunction (or impotence), decreased sex drive, and difficulty achieving orgasm.
A patient asks the nurse, "What is a prolactin assay for?" What is the best
response by the nurse? correct answer B. A prolactin assay will detect pituitary
dysfunction that can cause amenorrhea. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is
used to detect pregnancy. The biologic tumor markers, α-fetoprotein, hCG, and
CA 125 may be used to assess for reproductive malignancies and to monitor
therapy. Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) is a nonspecific antibody
test used to screen for syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection.
A patient comes to the clinic after being informed by a sexual partner of possible
recent exposure to syphilis. The nurse will examine the patient for what
characteristic finding of syphilis in the primary clinical stage? correct answer A.
Chancres appear in the primary stage of the bacterial invasion of Treponema
pallidum, the causative organism of syphilis. The other findings do not appear
until the secondary stage of syphilis, occurring a few weeks after the chancres
appear
A young male patient is seeking treatment for his STI because he knows a
recurrence is eminent because of the tingling, burning, and itching he is
experiencing. Based on his symptoms, the nurse should know that this patient's
STI will be treated with which type of medication? correct answer A
ANSWERS
A 19-year-old man comes to the outpatient clinic for treatment of uncomplicated
gonorrhea. Which statement made by the patient requires immediate
intervention by the nurse? correct answer C
Patients should abstain from sexual intercourse and alcohol during treatment.
Patients should avoid sexual intercourse for 7 days after completing treatment
with antibiotics. Sexual intercourse allows the infection to spread and can delay
healing. Alcohol is irritating to the healing urethral walls. Patients with
uncomplicated gonorrhea who are treated do not need to return to the clinic to
confirm the disease has been cured. All sexual contact of patients with gonorrhea
must be evaluated and treated to prevent reinfection.
A 21-year-old woman is scheduled for her first Pap test. The nurse should provide
which instructions? correct answer C. The patient should be instructed to not
douche for at least 24 hours before a Pap test. The patient should empty the
bladder before a Pap test. There are no activity restrictions after a Pap test. The
patient should rest for 2 to 3 days after a conization. A culture or a smear tests for
sexually transmitted infections. A Pap test is a cytologic study used to detect
abnormal cells.
A 22-year-old male is being treated at a college health care clinic for gonorrhea.
Which teaching point should the nurse include in patient teaching? correct
answer b.
Treatment for gonorrhea necessitates abstinence from sexual activity (to prevent
infection of partners) and alcohol (to avoid urethral irritation). The disease is not
self-limiting, nor does successful treatment confer future resistance.
,A 24-year-old patient is at the clinic with symptoms of purulent vaginal discharge,
dysuria, and dyspareunia. She is sexually active and has multiple partners. What
should the nurse explain to the patient as the rationale for screening her for
Chlamydia? correct answer c.
Because of the potential for infertility, routine screening for Chlamydia is
recommended for women sexually active under age 25 and annually for those
over 25 with one or more risk factors for the infection. Chlamydia is not a primary
risk for sepsis and is not noted to be strongly correlated with HIV infection. The
disease is treatable at all stages of infection.
A 30-year-old female patient has sought care because of the recent appearance of
itchy lesions on her vulva, some of which have recently burst. What problem
should the nurse first suspect related to the patient's description of her problem?
correct answer D
A primary episode of genital herpes is often marked by multiple small, vesicular
lesions on the genitals. This symptomatology is not commonly associated with
HIV, gonorrhea, or Chlamydia.
A 50-year-old patient is preparing to begin breast cancer treatment with
tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What point should the nurse emphasize when teaching the
patient about her new drug regimen? correct answer B. Tamoxifen has the
potential to cause cataracts and retinopathy. The drug is likely to exacerbate
rather than alleviate perimenopausal symptoms. Breast tenderness is not
associated with tamoxifen, and it is not necessary for the patient to abstain from
alcohol.
A 52-year-old man with a primary infection of genital herpes was prescribed
acyclovir (Zovirax) orally for 10 days. The patient returns to the clinic for a follow-
up visit. Which finding indicates that treatment is effective? correct answer B
Primary genital herpes is a viral disorder caused by the herpes simplex virus.
Genital herpes results in painful, vesicular lesions. The lesions rupture, form
, crusts, and heal in 17 to 21 days. Genital warts are caused by the human
papillomavirus. Genital herpes is caused by a viral infection (not bacterial).
Syphilis is caused by a bacterial organism and results in a chancre, which is a
painless, indurated lesion.
A 62-year-old male patient with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc).
The nurse should assess for which possible adverse effect? correct answer C.
Some antihypertensive medications (e.g., amlodipine) may cause erectile
dysfunction (or impotence), decreased sex drive, and difficulty achieving orgasm.
A patient asks the nurse, "What is a prolactin assay for?" What is the best
response by the nurse? correct answer B. A prolactin assay will detect pituitary
dysfunction that can cause amenorrhea. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is
used to detect pregnancy. The biologic tumor markers, α-fetoprotein, hCG, and
CA 125 may be used to assess for reproductive malignancies and to monitor
therapy. Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) is a nonspecific antibody
test used to screen for syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection.
A patient comes to the clinic after being informed by a sexual partner of possible
recent exposure to syphilis. The nurse will examine the patient for what
characteristic finding of syphilis in the primary clinical stage? correct answer A.
Chancres appear in the primary stage of the bacterial invasion of Treponema
pallidum, the causative organism of syphilis. The other findings do not appear
until the secondary stage of syphilis, occurring a few weeks after the chancres
appear
A young male patient is seeking treatment for his STI because he knows a
recurrence is eminent because of the tingling, burning, and itching he is
experiencing. Based on his symptoms, the nurse should know that this patient's
STI will be treated with which type of medication? correct answer A
