Page 1 of 42
KAPLAN MATERNAL COMPLICATIONS ASSESSMENT
2026/2027 COMPLETE (100) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
MATERNAL
Prepare for the Kaplan Maternal Complications Assessment with a focused study
resource covering essential concepts related to complications during pregnancy,
labor, delivery, and the postpartum period. It supports review of risk factors,
assessment findings, warning signs, nursing interventions, patient monitoring, and
appropriate clinical priorities. Use the material to reinforce knowledge, strengthen
clinical judgment, and identify areas that may require additional study. This resource
is best suited for nursing students and NCLEX candidates preparing for maternal
complications assessments.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
1. A client at 34 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. The nurse should suspect which condition first?
• A) Placenta previa
• B) Abruptio placentae
• C) Preterm labor
• D) Cervical insufficiency
Answer: A
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is the
classic presentation of placenta previa. Abruptio placentae is painful with
dark red bleeding. Preterm labor presents with contractions, not bleeding.
Cervical insufficiency presents with painless cervical dilation.
2. A client with abruptio placentae is at risk for which serious
complication?
, Page 2 of 42
• A) Polyhydramnios
• B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
• C) Preeclampsia
• D) Placenta previa
Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio placentae releases thromboplastin into the maternal
circulation, which can activate the coagulation cascade and lead to
DIC. Preeclampsia is a risk factor for abruption, not a complication.
Polyhydramnios is unrelated.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with preeclampsia who is receiving
magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor for which sign of
magnesium toxicity?
• A) Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
• B) Deep tendon reflexes 2+
• C) Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D) Loss of deep tendon reflexes
Answer: D
Rationale: Loss of deep tendon reflexes is an early sign of magnesium
toxicity. Respiratory rate < 12, urine output < 30 mL/hr, and decreased
reflexes indicate toxicity. A respiratory rate of 20, reflexes 2+, and urine
output of 30 mL/hr are therapeutic findings.
4. A client at 28 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes.
The nurse should teach the client about which potential complication?
• A) Macrosomia and birth trauma
• B) Microsomia
• C) Preterm labor
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• D) Placenta previa
Answer: A
Rationale: Gestational diabetes causes fetal hyperinsulinemia, leading to
macrosomia (large for gestational age), which increases the risk of birth
trauma (shoulder dystocia). Microsomia is associated with IUGR; preterm
labor and placenta previa are not directly caused by GDM.
5. A client with eclampsia is having a seizure. What is the nurse's priority
action?
• A) Place a tongue blade in the client's mouth
• B) Restrain the client's extremities
• C) Turn the client to the side and maintain a patent airway
• D) Administer IV lorazepam
Answer: C
Rationale: During an eclamptic seizure, the priority is to maintain a patent
airway and prevent aspiration by positioning the client on their
side. Nothing should be placed in the mouth; restraining increases injury risk;
IV lorazepam may be given but is not the first action.
6. A client is 36 hours post-cesarean section and reports sudden chest
pain and dyspnea. The nurse should suspect:
• A) Pulmonary embolism
• B) Wound infection
• C) Uterine atony
• D) Endometritis
Answer: A
Rationale: Postpartum clients are at high risk for thromboembolism.
Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachycardia are classic signs of
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pulmonary embolism. Wound infection presents with fever and wound
erythema; uterine atony presents with heavy bleeding; endometritis presents
with fever and uterine tenderness.
7. A client with severe preeclampsia has an order for labetalol. The nurse
should hold the medication if the client's heart rate is:
• A) 60 bpm
• B) 70 bpm
• C) 55 bpm
• D) 80 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: Labetalol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia. It
should be held if the heart rate is < 60 bpm. The other rates are within an
acceptable range.
8. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports a sudden gush of fluid from the
vagina. The nurse should assess for which complication?
• A) Preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM)
• B) Placenta previa
• C) Abruptio placentae
• D) Preeclampsia
Answer: A
Rationale: A sudden gush of fluid at 32 weeks is consistent with preterm
premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). This places the client at risk for
infection, cord prolapse, and preterm labor. Bleeding is not the primary
symptom.
KAPLAN MATERNAL COMPLICATIONS ASSESSMENT
2026/2027 COMPLETE (100) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
MATERNAL
Prepare for the Kaplan Maternal Complications Assessment with a focused study
resource covering essential concepts related to complications during pregnancy,
labor, delivery, and the postpartum period. It supports review of risk factors,
assessment findings, warning signs, nursing interventions, patient monitoring, and
appropriate clinical priorities. Use the material to reinforce knowledge, strengthen
clinical judgment, and identify areas that may require additional study. This resource
is best suited for nursing students and NCLEX candidates preparing for maternal
complications assessments.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
1. A client at 34 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. The nurse should suspect which condition first?
• A) Placenta previa
• B) Abruptio placentae
• C) Preterm labor
• D) Cervical insufficiency
Answer: A
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is the
classic presentation of placenta previa. Abruptio placentae is painful with
dark red bleeding. Preterm labor presents with contractions, not bleeding.
Cervical insufficiency presents with painless cervical dilation.
2. A client with abruptio placentae is at risk for which serious
complication?
, Page 2 of 42
• A) Polyhydramnios
• B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
• C) Preeclampsia
• D) Placenta previa
Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio placentae releases thromboplastin into the maternal
circulation, which can activate the coagulation cascade and lead to
DIC. Preeclampsia is a risk factor for abruption, not a complication.
Polyhydramnios is unrelated.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with preeclampsia who is receiving
magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor for which sign of
magnesium toxicity?
• A) Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
• B) Deep tendon reflexes 2+
• C) Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D) Loss of deep tendon reflexes
Answer: D
Rationale: Loss of deep tendon reflexes is an early sign of magnesium
toxicity. Respiratory rate < 12, urine output < 30 mL/hr, and decreased
reflexes indicate toxicity. A respiratory rate of 20, reflexes 2+, and urine
output of 30 mL/hr are therapeutic findings.
4. A client at 28 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes.
The nurse should teach the client about which potential complication?
• A) Macrosomia and birth trauma
• B) Microsomia
• C) Preterm labor
, Page 3 of 42
• D) Placenta previa
Answer: A
Rationale: Gestational diabetes causes fetal hyperinsulinemia, leading to
macrosomia (large for gestational age), which increases the risk of birth
trauma (shoulder dystocia). Microsomia is associated with IUGR; preterm
labor and placenta previa are not directly caused by GDM.
5. A client with eclampsia is having a seizure. What is the nurse's priority
action?
• A) Place a tongue blade in the client's mouth
• B) Restrain the client's extremities
• C) Turn the client to the side and maintain a patent airway
• D) Administer IV lorazepam
Answer: C
Rationale: During an eclamptic seizure, the priority is to maintain a patent
airway and prevent aspiration by positioning the client on their
side. Nothing should be placed in the mouth; restraining increases injury risk;
IV lorazepam may be given but is not the first action.
6. A client is 36 hours post-cesarean section and reports sudden chest
pain and dyspnea. The nurse should suspect:
• A) Pulmonary embolism
• B) Wound infection
• C) Uterine atony
• D) Endometritis
Answer: A
Rationale: Postpartum clients are at high risk for thromboembolism.
Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachycardia are classic signs of
, Page 4 of 42
pulmonary embolism. Wound infection presents with fever and wound
erythema; uterine atony presents with heavy bleeding; endometritis presents
with fever and uterine tenderness.
7. A client with severe preeclampsia has an order for labetalol. The nurse
should hold the medication if the client's heart rate is:
• A) 60 bpm
• B) 70 bpm
• C) 55 bpm
• D) 80 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: Labetalol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia. It
should be held if the heart rate is < 60 bpm. The other rates are within an
acceptable range.
8. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports a sudden gush of fluid from the
vagina. The nurse should assess for which complication?
• A) Preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM)
• B) Placenta previa
• C) Abruptio placentae
• D) Preeclampsia
Answer: A
Rationale: A sudden gush of fluid at 32 weeks is consistent with preterm
premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). This places the client at risk for
infection, cord prolapse, and preterm labor. Bleeding is not the primary
symptom.
