KAPLAN INTEGRATED TEST 2 – NCLEX-RN EXAMINATION
2026/2027 COMPLETE (100) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NCLEX-RN
Prepare for the Kaplan Integrated Test 2 Exam with a focused study resource designed
to reinforce essential nursing concepts across multiple clinical areas. It supports
review of patient assessment, safety, prioritization, clinical judgment, nursing
interventions, and care planning. Use the material to strengthen knowledge, identify
areas for additional review, and build confidence before the exam. This resource is
best suited for nursing students and NCLEX candidates preparing for integrated
nursing assessments.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
1. The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving
furosemide. Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is
having the desired therapeutic effect?
• A) Increased peripheral edema
• B) Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
• C) Decreased shortness of breath and crackles
• D) Increased jugular venous distension
Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid volume
overload. A decrease in shortness of breath and crackles indicates
improvement in pulmonary congestion. Increased edema, weight gain, and
JVD indicate worsening fluid overload.
, Page 2 of 43
2. The nurse is changing a sterile dressing. After opening the sterile kit,
the nurse drops a sterile gauze pad onto the sterile field. Which action
should the nurse take?
• A) Pick up the gauze and place it back on the field
• B) Discard the gauze and continue with the other supplies
• C) Discard the entire sterile field and start over
• D) Use the gauze only if the field was not contaminated
Answer: B
Rationale: If a sterile item falls outside the 1-inch border of the sterile
field or touches a non-sterile surface, it is considered contaminated. The
gauze should be discarded, but the rest of the field remains sterile. The
entire field does not need to be discarded for one dropped item.
3. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. The nurse
should instruct the client that the full therapeutic effect may take:
• A) 24–48 hours
• B) 2–4 days
• C) 2–4 weeks
• D) 6–8 months
Answer: C
Rationale: SSRIs typically take 2–4 weeks to achieve a therapeutic effect.
Clients should be educated not to expect immediate relief and to
continue taking the medication even if they feel better. Delayed onset is a
key teaching point.
4. A client at 34 weeks gestation with preeclampsia is receiving
magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
• A) Deep tendon reflexes 2+
, Page 3 of 43
• B) Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min
• C) Urine output of 40 mL/hr
• D) Loss of deep tendon reflexes
Answer: D
Rationale: Loss of deep tendon reflexes is an early sign of magnesium
toxicity. Therapeutic findings include reflexes 1–2+, respiratory rate ≥ 12,
and urine output ≥ 30 mL/hr. Calcium gluconate should be available as the
antidote.
5. The nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a 2-month-old infant
about immunizations. Which vaccines are recommended at this age?
• A) DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV13, Rotavirus, Hepatitis B
• B) DTaP, IPV, MMR, Varicella
• C) DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV13, MMR
• D) DTaP, IPV, Hib, Hepatitis B only
Answer: A
Rationale: At 2 months, the recommended vaccines are DTaP, IPV, Hib,
PCV13, Rotavirus, and Hepatitis B (2nd dose). MMR and Varicella are given
at 12–15 months. Option A includes all the correct vaccines for this age.
6. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed
warfarin. Which laboratory value indicates therapeutic effectiveness?
• A) aPTT of 60 seconds
• B) INR of 2.5
• C) Platelet count of 150,000
• D) Hemoglobin of 13.0 g/dL
, Page 4 of 43
Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is monitored using the INR; a therapeutic INR for DVT
is 2.0–3.0. aPTT is used for heparin monitoring. Platelets and hemoglobin
are not indicators of warfarin efficacy.
7. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube attached to
low intermittent suction. The nurse notes that the tube is not draining.
Which action should the nurse take first?
• A) Irrigate the tube with 30 mL of normal saline
• B) Reposition the client and check the tube for kinks
• C) Notify the provider
• D) Advance the tube 2 cm
Answer: B
Rationale: The first step is to assess the tube and client for mechanical
obstruction such as kinks or positioning. Repositioning may allow
drainage to resume. Irrigation requires an order and should not be the first
action.
8. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an
oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. The nurse should:
• A) Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
• B) Apply oxygen at 6 L/min via simple face mask
• C) Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
• D) Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
Answer: A
Rationale: For clients with COPD, oxygen should be initiated at a low flow
rate (1–2 L/min) to avoid suppressing the hypoxic drive. The target SpO₂ is
88–92%. 6 L/min is too high; positioning and coughing are not the initial
priority for hypoxia.