Complete Practice Questions with Correct Answers & Detailed
Rationales
Master psychiatric nursing interventions and pass every milestone assessment with this
complete 2026/2027 NUR 253 Mental Health Nursing bundle covering Exams 1 through
4. This comprehensive preparatory test bank features high-yield practice questions
paired with 100% verified answers and rigorous clinical rationales exploring therapeutic
communication, DSM-5-TR mood and psychotic disorders, substance abuse
management, and psychopharmacology safety protocols. It is the ultimate tool for pre-
licensure nursing students looking to optimize study routines, sharpen clinical judgment,
and secure an A+ grade.
1. The nurse is assessing a patient with a new diagnosis of major depressive
disorder. The patient states, "I'm a burden to everyone. They'd be better off
without me." What is the nurse's priority response?
A. "You have so much to live for."
B. "Why do you feel that way?"
C. "Are you thinking about harming yourself?"
D. "Let's focus on the positive things in your life."
Rationale: The patient's statement indicates potential suicidal ideation. The priority is to
directly assess for suicide risk by asking a clear, direct question about thoughts of self-
harm. Reassurance or focusing on positives may dismiss the patient's feelings, and asking
"why" can be perceived as judgmental .
2. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations commanding
them to harm staff. The client appears agitated. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Leave the client alone to de-escalate
B. Provide a safe environment, acknowledge distress, and redirect to reality-based
activities
,C. Tell the client the voices are not real
D. Place the client in seclusion immediately
Rationale: The nurse should acknowledge the client's distress without reinforcing the
hallucination ("I understand you're hearing voices that are frightening") and then redirect
to a calming, reality-based activity. The client should not be left alone if they are at risk .
3. A patient taking lithium for bipolar disorder has a serum lithium level of 1.8
mEq/L. The patient reports nausea, vomiting, and coarse tremor. Which of the
following is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Document the findings as normal
B. Hold the lithium and notify the healthcare provider
C. Administer an antiemetic
D. Increase the lithium dose
Rationale: A lithium level of 1.8 mEq/L is above the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L).
Symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and coarse tremor indicate lithium toxicity. The lithium
should be held immediately and the provider notified .
4. A client is admitted with anorexia nervosa. Which finding is most concerning
and requires immediate intervention?
A. BMI of 17.0 kg/m²
B. Amenorrhea for 3 months
C. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
D. Fine lanugo hair on the body
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium <3.5 mEq/L) can cause life-threatening cardiac
arrhythmias and requires immediate medical intervention. While low BMI, amenorrhea,
and lanugo are signs of anorexia, severe electrolyte imbalance is the priority .
5. A client with bipolar I disorder is in a manic episode. They are hyperverbal,
grandiose, and have not slept for 3 days. Which nursing intervention is the
,priority?
A. Engage the client in a competitive group activity to expend energy
B. Provide a stimulating environment with bright lights
C. Offer high-calorie finger foods and fluids, and provide a quiet, low-stimulation
environment
D. Encourage the client to process feelings about their behavior
Rationale: During acute mania, the priority is maintaining physical safety and nutrition.
The client is at risk for exhaustion and dehydration. High-calorie foods that can be eaten
on the go, a quiet environment, and limiting stimulation are essential .
6. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. Which
statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the medication?
A. "This medication will work immediately for my anxiety."
B. "It may take 2-4 weeks for this medication to reach its full effect."
C. "I can take this medication as needed when I feel anxious."
D. "This medication is a benzodiazepine."
Rationale: Buspirone is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic that requires 2-4 weeks for full
therapeutic effect. It is not for as-needed use and does not cause dependence like
benzodiazepines .
7. A client with major depressive disorder is started on sertraline. Which nursing
education is most important?
A. "The medication will work immediately."
B. "You can stop the medication once you feel better."
C. "It may take 4-6 weeks to see the full therapeutic effect."
D. "This medication has no side effects."
Rationale: SSRIs like sertraline require 4-6 weeks to achieve full therapeutic effect. Patients
should be educated about this delay to prevent premature discontinuation .
, 8. A patient is experiencing a panic attack. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Stay with the patient and provide a calm, reassuring presence
B. Administer an antipsychotic medication
C. Leave the patient alone to calm down
D. Encourage the patient to talk about the cause of the panic
Rationale: During a panic attack, the priority is to provide a calm, supportive presence to
help the patient feel safe. Grounding techniques and breathing exercises may be helpful.
Leaving the patient alone or pushing for discussion can worsen symptoms .
9. The nurse is caring for a client who has acute stress disorder and is experiencing
severe anxiety. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Ask the client to describe current feelings and use grounding techniques
B. Explore the client's past trauma history
C. Recommend the client avoid stressful situations
D. Administer a sedative immediately
Rationale: During acute anxiety, the nurse should focus on the present moment using
grounding techniques. Exploring past trauma can intensify distress. Avoidance is not
therapeutic, and sedation is not the first-line response .
10. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is treated with fluoxetine 80 mg
daily for 12 weeks with minimal improvement. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step?
A. Discontinue fluoxetine and start clomipramine
B. Add a low-dose atypical antipsychotic such as risperidone
C. Increase fluoxetine to 120 mg daily
D. Refer for deep brain stimulation
Rationale: For OCD refractory to SSRI monotherapy, augmentation with low-dose atypical
antipsychotics (e.g., risperidone) is evidence-based. Clomipramine can be used but has
more side effects. Deep brain stimulation is reserved for severe, treatment-refractory cases
.