2026 NR603 CEA Exam | Actual Exam Questions, Answers,
Case Studies & Rationales | Frequently Most Tested Questions
and 100% Accurate
Pass your primary care clinical evaluation assessment on your first attempt with this
definitive NR603 CEA final exam preparation bank. This comprehensive study guide
features actual exam-style questions, interactive clinical case studies, 100% verified
correct answers, and thorough diagnostic rationales covering adult-gerontology acute
and chronic illness management, differential diagnoses, and evidence-based treatment
plans. It is the ultimate preparatory tool for family nurse practitioner students looking to
compress study routines, eliminate test anxiety, and secure an A+ grade.
1. A 42-year-old female presents with a 2-year history of persistent, excessive
worrying about her children's safety, her job performance, and her health. She
reports difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, and fatigue. She states, "I just can't
seem to stop worrying about everything." Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial screening tool?
A. GAD-7
B. PHQ-9
C. PCL-5
D. CAGE
Answer: A
Rationale: The GAD-7 is a 7-item screening tool for generalized anxiety disorder that
assesses the severity of anxiety symptoms. The patient's symptoms of excessive worry,
sleep disturbance, muscle tension, and fatigue are classic for GAD. The PHQ-9 screens for
depression, the PCL-5 screens for PTSD, and the CAGE screens for alcohol use disorder.
2. A 55-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of persistent thoughts of
death and dying. He reports feeling hopeless and has lost interest in activities he
once enjoyed. He has a history of coronary artery disease. Which of the following
is the most important initial assessment?
,A. Suicide risk assessment
B. Complete blood count
C. Thyroid function tests
D. Electrocardiogram
Answer: A
Rationale: The most important initial assessment is a suicide risk assessment. Patients with
depression and thoughts of death are at increased risk for suicide. Safety is the priority.
Lab tests and EKG are important but secondary to safety assessment.
3. A 30-year-old female presents with a 1-year history of recurrent, intrusive
memories of a motor vehicle accident. She avoids driving and reports difficulty
sleeping. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Acute stress disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: PTSD is characterized by exposure to a traumatic event, intrusive memories,
avoidance of reminders, negative mood, and hyperarousal lasting more than 1 month. The
patient's symptoms are classic for PTSD. Acute stress disorder lasts less than 1 month.
4. A 28-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of episodes of intense fear
accompanied by palpitations, sweating, and a feeling of impending doom. The
episodes occur unexpectedly and last about 10-15 minutes. He has avoided going
to the gym because he fears having an attack. Which of the following is the most
appropriate treatment?
A. SSRI and cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Benzodiazepine monotherapy
C. Antipsychotic monotherapy
D. Tricyclic antidepressant only
,Answer: A
Rationale: Panic disorder is effectively treated with SSRIs and cognitive-behavioral therapy
(CBT). Benzodiazepines may be used but are not first-line due to dependence risk.
Antipsychotics are not first-line for panic disorder. Tricyclics are effective but have more
side effects than SSRIs.
5. A 45-year-old male presents with a 5-year history of recurrent episodes of binge
eating. He reports eating large amounts of food in a short period, feeling a loss of
control during the episodes, and feeling disgusted with himself afterward. He
engages in self-induced vomiting after bingeing. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Anorexia nervosa, binge-purge type
C. Binge eating disorder
D. Pica
Answer: A
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent binge eating followed by
inappropriate compensatory behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting. Anorexia nervosa,
binge-purge type, involves restriction of intake with compensatory behaviors but is
associated with significantly low body weight. Binge eating disorder does not involve
compensatory behaviors.
6. A 62-year-old female presents with a 2-year history of progressive cognitive
decline, memory loss, and difficulty with activities of daily living. She has a history
of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial workup?
A. Complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, thyroid function tests, and
vitamin B12 level
B. MRI of the brain
C. EEG
D. Lumbar puncture
, Answer: A
Rationale: The initial workup for dementia should include lab tests to rule out reversible
causes, including CBC, CMP, thyroid function tests, and vitamin B12 level. MRI, EEG, and
lumbar puncture are not routine initial steps unless indicated by specific symptoms.
7. A 38-year-old female presents with a 6-month history of difficulty controlling
her worry about multiple aspects of her life. She reports that she feels "on edge"
and has difficulty sleeping. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
treatment?
A. SSRI
B. SNRI
C. CBT
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: GAD is effectively treated with SSRIs, SNRIs, and CBT. SSRIs include sertraline,
paroxetine, and escitalopram. SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine. All are first-line
treatments. The choice depends on side effect profile and patient preference.
8. A 25-year-old male presents with a 1-week history of elevated mood, decreased
need for sleep, rapid speech, and grandiose beliefs. He reports feeling "invincible"
and has started multiple projects. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial treatment?
A. Lithium
B. SSRI
C. Benzodiazepine
D. Antipsychotic
Answer: A
Rationale: Lithium is a first-line mood stabilizer for acute mania. SSRIs can worsen mania.
Benzodiazepines and antipsychotics may be used but lithium is the gold standard for
acute mania. The patient's symptoms suggest a manic episode, likely bipolar I disorder.
Case Studies & Rationales | Frequently Most Tested Questions
and 100% Accurate
Pass your primary care clinical evaluation assessment on your first attempt with this
definitive NR603 CEA final exam preparation bank. This comprehensive study guide
features actual exam-style questions, interactive clinical case studies, 100% verified
correct answers, and thorough diagnostic rationales covering adult-gerontology acute
and chronic illness management, differential diagnoses, and evidence-based treatment
plans. It is the ultimate preparatory tool for family nurse practitioner students looking to
compress study routines, eliminate test anxiety, and secure an A+ grade.
1. A 42-year-old female presents with a 2-year history of persistent, excessive
worrying about her children's safety, her job performance, and her health. She
reports difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, and fatigue. She states, "I just can't
seem to stop worrying about everything." Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial screening tool?
A. GAD-7
B. PHQ-9
C. PCL-5
D. CAGE
Answer: A
Rationale: The GAD-7 is a 7-item screening tool for generalized anxiety disorder that
assesses the severity of anxiety symptoms. The patient's symptoms of excessive worry,
sleep disturbance, muscle tension, and fatigue are classic for GAD. The PHQ-9 screens for
depression, the PCL-5 screens for PTSD, and the CAGE screens for alcohol use disorder.
2. A 55-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of persistent thoughts of
death and dying. He reports feeling hopeless and has lost interest in activities he
once enjoyed. He has a history of coronary artery disease. Which of the following
is the most important initial assessment?
,A. Suicide risk assessment
B. Complete blood count
C. Thyroid function tests
D. Electrocardiogram
Answer: A
Rationale: The most important initial assessment is a suicide risk assessment. Patients with
depression and thoughts of death are at increased risk for suicide. Safety is the priority.
Lab tests and EKG are important but secondary to safety assessment.
3. A 30-year-old female presents with a 1-year history of recurrent, intrusive
memories of a motor vehicle accident. She avoids driving and reports difficulty
sleeping. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Acute stress disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: PTSD is characterized by exposure to a traumatic event, intrusive memories,
avoidance of reminders, negative mood, and hyperarousal lasting more than 1 month. The
patient's symptoms are classic for PTSD. Acute stress disorder lasts less than 1 month.
4. A 28-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of episodes of intense fear
accompanied by palpitations, sweating, and a feeling of impending doom. The
episodes occur unexpectedly and last about 10-15 minutes. He has avoided going
to the gym because he fears having an attack. Which of the following is the most
appropriate treatment?
A. SSRI and cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Benzodiazepine monotherapy
C. Antipsychotic monotherapy
D. Tricyclic antidepressant only
,Answer: A
Rationale: Panic disorder is effectively treated with SSRIs and cognitive-behavioral therapy
(CBT). Benzodiazepines may be used but are not first-line due to dependence risk.
Antipsychotics are not first-line for panic disorder. Tricyclics are effective but have more
side effects than SSRIs.
5. A 45-year-old male presents with a 5-year history of recurrent episodes of binge
eating. He reports eating large amounts of food in a short period, feeling a loss of
control during the episodes, and feeling disgusted with himself afterward. He
engages in self-induced vomiting after bingeing. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Anorexia nervosa, binge-purge type
C. Binge eating disorder
D. Pica
Answer: A
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent binge eating followed by
inappropriate compensatory behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting. Anorexia nervosa,
binge-purge type, involves restriction of intake with compensatory behaviors but is
associated with significantly low body weight. Binge eating disorder does not involve
compensatory behaviors.
6. A 62-year-old female presents with a 2-year history of progressive cognitive
decline, memory loss, and difficulty with activities of daily living. She has a history
of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial workup?
A. Complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, thyroid function tests, and
vitamin B12 level
B. MRI of the brain
C. EEG
D. Lumbar puncture
, Answer: A
Rationale: The initial workup for dementia should include lab tests to rule out reversible
causes, including CBC, CMP, thyroid function tests, and vitamin B12 level. MRI, EEG, and
lumbar puncture are not routine initial steps unless indicated by specific symptoms.
7. A 38-year-old female presents with a 6-month history of difficulty controlling
her worry about multiple aspects of her life. She reports that she feels "on edge"
and has difficulty sleeping. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
treatment?
A. SSRI
B. SNRI
C. CBT
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: GAD is effectively treated with SSRIs, SNRIs, and CBT. SSRIs include sertraline,
paroxetine, and escitalopram. SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine. All are first-line
treatments. The choice depends on side effect profile and patient preference.
8. A 25-year-old male presents with a 1-week history of elevated mood, decreased
need for sleep, rapid speech, and grandiose beliefs. He reports feeling "invincible"
and has started multiple projects. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial treatment?
A. Lithium
B. SSRI
C. Benzodiazepine
D. Antipsychotic
Answer: A
Rationale: Lithium is a first-line mood stabilizer for acute mania. SSRIs can worsen mania.
Benzodiazepines and antipsychotics may be used but lithium is the gold standard for
acute mania. The patient's symptoms suggest a manic episode, likely bipolar I disorder.
