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PATH 370 - MID TERM EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026

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PATH 370 - MID TERM EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026 A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs a. platelet production. b. platelet aggregation. c. platelet adhesion to injured tissue. d. activation of the coagulation cascade. - Answers c. platelet adhesion to injured tissue. Metaplasia is a. the transformation of a cell type to malignancy. b. the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another. c. an irreversible cellular adaptation. d. the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements. - Answers b. the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another. Tumor necrosis factor α and interleukin-1 contribute to shock states because they induce production of a. clotting factors. b. catecholamines. c. vasopressin. d. nitric oxide. - Answers d. nitric oxide. In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing? a. Class I, Initial Stage b. Class III, Progressive Stage c. Class IV, Refractory Stage d. Class II, Compensated Stage - Answers d. Class II, Compensated Stage The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as a. subclinical. b. convalescence. c. prodromal. d. latent. - Answers a. subclinical. A disease that is native to a particular region is called a. ethnographic. b. endemic. c. pandemic. d. epidemic. - Answers b. endemic. The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in a. Mexican-American adults. b. Asian children. c. non-Hispanic black adults. d. non-Hispanic white adults. - Answers c. non-Hispanic black adults. In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with a. CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia). b. CML (chronic myeloid leukemia). c. AML (acute myeloid leukemia). d. ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia). - Answers d. ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia). A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety. The patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum. This patient is most likely experiencing a. a medication reaction. b. right-sided heart failure. c. acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. d. cardiomyopathy. - Answers c. acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38 beats/minute on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm? a. Sinus bradycardia b. Third-degree heart block c. Ventricular escape rhythm d. Junctional tachycardia - Answers c. Ventricular escape rhythm The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with a. incompatible blood products. b. antibiotics. c. animal proteins or dander. d. perfumes. - Answers b. antibiotics. Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include a. increased blood pressure. b. increased skin turgor. c. decreased heart rate. d. decreased urine output. - Answers d. decreased urine output. The nurse is swabbing a patient's throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity. a. False b. True - Answers b. True A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of a. tertiary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. disease treatment. d. primary prevention. - Answers d. primary prevention. A patient is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. The patient is hyperventilating and is therefore at risk for the respiratory complication of respiratory acidosis. a. True b. False - Answers b. False Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called _____ angina. a. Prinzmetal variant b. unstable c. stable d. classic - Answers a. Prinzmetal variant Which serum biomarker(s) are indicative of irreversible damage to myocardial cells? a. Elevated LDL b. Elevated CK-MB, troponin I, and troponin T c. Prolonged coagulation time d. Markedly decreased CK-MB and troponin I - Answers b. Elevated CK-MB, troponin I, and troponin T After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will a. have minimal side effects. b. stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer. c. selectively kill tumor cells. d. kill rapidly dividing cells. - Answers d. kill rapidly dividing cells. All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by a. resistance to airflow. b. hyperresponsiveness. c. decreased lung compliance. d. decreased residual volumes. - Answers a. resistance to airflow. The patient who requires the most careful monitoring for development of metabolic acidosis is a patient who a. has had hypokalemia for over a week. b. is in the diuretic phase of acute renal failure. c. has newly diagnosed Cushing syndrome. d. has had diarrhea for over a week. - Answers d. has had diarrhea for over a week. The organism that causes pulmonary tuberculosis is a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. b. Tuberculosis tuberculoci. c. Haemophilus tuberculosis. d. Mycococcidio tuberculosis. - Answers a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. What is likely to lead to hyponatremia? a. Administration of intravenous normal saline b. Excess aldosterone secretion c. Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water d. Insufficient ADH secretion - Answers c. Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by a. increased expiratory flow rates. b. decreased chest wall compliance. c. increased residual lung volumes. d. increased pulmonary blood flow. - Answers c. increased residual lung volumes. What results when systemic blood pressure is increased? a. Decreased cardiac output b. Decreased vascular resistance c. Vasoconstriction d. Hypovolemia - Answers c. Vasoconstriction Which finding is indicative of orthostatic hypotension in a person with a supine blood pressure (BP) of 110/70 and a heart rate (HR) of 100? a. Sitting BP 108/68, HR 102 b. Sitting BP 120/80, HR 100 c. Sitting BP 88/60, HR 118 d. Sitting BP 110/78, HR 98 - Answers c. Sitting BP 88/60, HR 118 An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed a. inflammation. b. atrophy. c. hypertrophy. d. metaplasia - Answers c. hypertrophy. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n) a. hypersensitivity reaction. b. deficient immune response. c. excessive immune response. d. primary acquired immunodeficiency. - Answers b. deficient immune response. To best prevent emphysema, a patient is instructed to stop smoking since cigarette smoke a. introduces carcinogens into the lungs. b. predisposes to respiratory infections. c. impairs α1-antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate. d. paralyzes the cilia, causing impaired mucociliary clearance. - Answers c. impairs α1-antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate. Reperfusion injury to cells a. involves formation of free radicals. b. results from calcium deficiency in cells. c. results in very little cellular damage. d. occurs following nutritional injury. - Answers a. involves formation of free radicals. Mitral stenosis is associated with a. a prominent S4 heart sound. b. left ventricular hypertrophy. c. a muffled second heart sound (S2). d. a pressure gradient across the mitral valve. - Answers d. a pressure gradient across the mitral valve. Tachycardia is an early sign of low cardiac output that occurs because of a. acidosis. b. tissue hypoxia. c. anxiety. d. baroreceptor activity. - Answers d. baroreceptor activity. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a measure of the integrity of

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PATH 370 - MID TERM EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY
LATEST UPDATE 2026


A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs

a. platelet production.
b. platelet aggregation.
c. platelet adhesion to injured tissue.
d. activation of the coagulation cascade. - Answers c. platelet adhesion to injured
tissue.
Metaplasia is

a. the transformation of a cell type to malignancy.
b. the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
c. an irreversible cellular adaptation.
d. the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements. - Answers
b. the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
Tumor necrosis factor α and interleukin-1 contribute to shock states because they
induce production of

a. clotting factors.
b. catecholamines.
c. vasopressin.
d. nitric oxide. - Answers d. nitric oxide.
In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal
blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon
standing?

a. Class I, Initial Stage
b. Class III, Progressive Stage
c. Class IV, Refractory Stage
d. Class II, Compensated Stage - Answers d. Class II, Compensated Stage
The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes
are well established, is referred to as

a. subclinical.
b. convalescence.
c. prodromal.
d. latent. - Answers a. subclinical.
A disease that is native to a particular region is called

a. ethnographic.
b. endemic.
c. pandemic.
d. epidemic. - Answers b. endemic.
The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in

a. Mexican-American adults.
b. Asian children.

, c. non-Hispanic black adults.
d. non-Hispanic white adults. - Answers c. non-Hispanic black adults.
In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with

a. CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia).
b. CML (chronic myeloid leukemia).
c. AML (acute myeloid leukemia).
d. ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia). - Answers d. ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia).
A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety. The patient also has bubbly
crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum. This patient is most likely
experiencing

a. a medication reaction.
b. right-sided heart failure.
c. acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
d. cardiomyopathy. - Answers c. acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes,
and a heart rate of 38 beats/minute on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm?

a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Third-degree heart block
c. Ventricular escape rhythm
d. Junctional tachycardia - Answers c. Ventricular escape rhythm
The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes
in contact with

a. incompatible blood products.
b. antibiotics.
c. animal proteins or dander.
d. perfumes. - Answers b. antibiotics.
Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include

a. increased blood pressure.
b. increased skin turgor.
c. decreased heart rate.
d. decreased urine output. - Answers d. decreased urine output.
The nurse is swabbing a patient's throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The
nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be
positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is
termed sensitivity.

a. False
b. True - Answers b. True
A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that
causes meningitis. This is an example of

a. tertiary prevention.
b. secondary prevention.
c. disease treatment.
d. primary prevention. - Answers d. primary prevention.

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